CompTIA CLO-002 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CLO-002 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 51:

  A company decommissioned its testing environment. Which of the following should the company do FIRST to avoid charges?

  A. Detach and delete disposable resources.
  B. Empty the logging directory.
  C. Delete infrastructure as code templates.
  D. Disable alerts and alarms.
  A. Detach and delete disposable resources.

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Disposable resources are cloud resources that are not needed for the long- term operation of an application or service, and can be easily created and deleted on- demand. Examples of disposable resources include temporary storage, spot instances, and disposable virtual machines. Disposable resources can help to reduce costs and improve flexibility, but they also incur charges when they are in use or attached to other resources. Therefore, when a company decommissioned its testing environment, it should detach and delete disposable resources first to avoid charges12 Emptying the logging directory is not the best option to avoid charges, because logging directory is a folder that stores the records of events and activities that occur in an application or service. Logging directory can help to monitor and troubleshoot the performance and issues of the application or service, but it does not directly affect the charges of the cloud resources. Emptying the logging directory may also result in the loss of valuable information and insights that can be used for future improvement or analysis. Deleting infrastructure as code templates is not the best option to avoid charges, because infrastructure as code templates are files that define and configure the cloud resources using code or scripts. Infrastructure as code templates can help to automate and standardize the deployment and management of the cloud resources, but they do not directly affect the charges of the cloud resources. Deleting infrastructure as code templates may also make it harder to recreate or modify the cloud resources in the future. Disabling alerts and alarms is not the best option to avoid charges, because alerts and alarms are notifications that are triggered by certain conditions or thresholds that are set for the cloud resources. Alerts and alarms can help to notify and respond to the changes or issues of the cloud resources, but they do not directly affect the charges of the cloud resources. Disabling alerts and alarms may also make it difficult to detect and resolve any problems or anomalies that may occur in the cloud resources. References: 1: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/disposable-vm 2: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cloud-essentials-clo-002-study-guide, page 46

• Question 52:

  A company is deploying a new application and must decide whether to build an infrastructure to host the application on premises or in the cloud. Which of the following BEST describes the financial impact of hosting the application in the cloud?

  A. The company's capital expense will be less.
  B. The company will be able to defer licensing costs.
  C. The provider will share responsibility for the company's monthly bill.
  D. Monthly operating costs will remain constant despite usage.
  A. The company's capital expense will be less.

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Hosting the application in the cloud means that the company does not need to invest in building and maintaining an infrastructure to host the application on premises. This reduces the company's capital expense, which is the money spent on acquiring or upgrading fixed assets, such as servers, storage, network, and software1. Instead, the company can pay for the cloud services that they use on a subscription or consumption basis, which is considered an operating expense, which is the money spent on the day-to-day running of the business1. Hosting the application in the cloud can also provide other financial benefits, such as lower energy costs, higher scalability, and faster time to market2. The other options are not correct, as they do not describe the financial impact of hosting the application in the cloud accurately. The company will not be able to defer licensing costs, as they will still need to pay for the software licenses that they use in the cloud, either as part of the cloud service fee or separately3. The provider will not share responsibility for the company's monthly bill, as the company will be solely responsible for paying for the cloud services that they consume, based on the provider's pricing model and terms of service4. Monthly operating costs will not remain constant despite usage, as the cloud services are typically charged based on the amount of resources or features that the company uses, such as storage, bandwidth, CPU, memory, or transactions4. Therefore, the monthly operating costs will vary depending on the usage and demand of the application. References: Capital Expenditure (CapEx) Definition; Cloud Computing Benefits: 7 Key Advantages for Your Business; Cloud Computing Licensing: What You Need to Know; Cloud Computing Pricing Models: A Comprehensive Guide.

• Question 53:

  Which of the following allows an IP address to be referenced via an easily remembered name for a SaaS application?

  A. DNS
  B. CDN
  C. VPN
  D. WAN
  A. DNS

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  Explanation/Reference:

  DNS stands for Domain Name System, which is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Domain names are easier to remember than IP addresses, and they can also change without affecting the users. For

  example, a SaaS application can have a domain name like www.saas.com, which can be resolved to different IP addresses depending on the location, availability, and performance of the servers. DNS allows users to access the SaaS

  application by typing the domain name in their browser, instead of memorizing the IP address. References:

  https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cloud-essentials-clo-002-study-guide, Chapter 2, page 43.

• Question 54:

  An on-premises, business-critical application is used for financial reporting and forecasting. The Chief Financial Officer requests options to move the application to cloud. Which of the following would be BEST to review the options?

  A. Test the applications in a sandbox environment.
  B. Perform a gap analysis.
  C. Conduct a feasibility assessment.
  D. Design a high-level architecture.
  C. Conduct a feasibility assessment.

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  Explanation/Reference:

  A feasibility assessment is a process of evaluating the viability and suitability of moving an on-premises application to the cloud. A feasibility assessment can help identify the benefits, risks, costs, and challenges of cloud migration, as well as the technical and business requirements, constraints, and dependencies of the application. A feasibility assessment can also help compare different cloud service models, deployment models, and providers, and recommend the best option for the application. A feasibility assessment would be the best way to review the options for moving a business-critical application to the cloud. A gap analysis is a process of identifying the differences between the current and desired state of a system or process. A gap analysis can help determine the gaps in performance, functionality, security, or compliance of an on-premises application and a cloud-based application, and suggest the actions needed to close the gaps. A gap analysis is usually performed after a feasibility assessment, when the cloud migration option has been selected, and before the transition planning phase. A test is a process of verifying the functionality, performance, security, or compatibility of an application or system. A test can help detect and resolve any errors, bugs, or issues in the application or system, and ensure that it meets the expected standards and specifications. A test can be performed in a sandbox environment, which is an isolated and controlled environment that mimics the real production environment. A test is usually performed during or after the cloud migration process, when the application has been deployed or migrated to the cloud, and before the final release or launch. A high-level architecture is a conceptual or logical design of an application or system that shows the main components, functions, relationships, and interactions of the application or system. A high-level architecture can help visualize and communicate the structure, behavior, and goals of the application or system, and guide the development and implementation process. A high-level architecture is usually created during the design phase of the cloud migration process, after the feasibility assessment and the gap analysis, and before the development and testing phase. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide, page 109-110, 113-114, 117-118, 121-122; CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Training, CertMaster Learn for Cloud Essentials+, Module 3: Cloud Solutions, Lesson 3.2: Cloud Migration, Topic 3.2.1: Cloud Migration Process

• Question 55:

  A company is migrating its e-commerce platform to a cloud service provider. The e- commerce site has a significant number of images. Which of the following is the BEST storage type for storing the images?

  A. Object
  B. Cold
  C. File
  D. Block
  A. Object

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Object storage is a type of cloud storage that stores data as objects, which consist of data and metadata. Object storage is ideal for storing large amounts of unstructured data, such as images, videos, audio, documents, etc. Object storage provides high scalability, durability, and availability, as well as easy access via HTTP or REST APIs. Object storage is also more cost-effective than other types of storage, such as block or file storage, which are more suitable for structured data or applications that require high performance or low latency. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Exam Objectives1, CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Study Guide, Chapter 4: Cloud Storage2

• Question 56:

  Which of the following describes the contractually allowed downtime for a cloud-hosted application?

  A. SOW
  B. SLA
  C. SOP
  D. SOA
  B. SLA

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  Explanation/Reference:

  An SLA (service level agreement) is a contract between a cloud service provider and a cloud customer that defines the expected level of service, performance, availability, and reliability of the cloud service. An SLA also specifies the contractually allowed downtime for a cloud-hosted application, which is the maximum amount of time that the application can be unavailable or inaccessible without violating the SLA. The contractually allowed downtime is usually expressed as a percentage of uptime, such as 99.9% or 99.99%, which corresponds to a certain number of hours or minutes per year, month, week, or day. For example, an SLA with 99.9% uptime means that the cloud service can be down for up to 8.76 hours per year, or 43.8 minutes per month, or 10.1 minutes per week, or 1.44 minutes per day. If the cloud service provider fails to meet the SLA, the cloud customer may be entitled to compensation or other remedies, such as credits, refunds, or termination of the contract. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Certification Study Guide, page 27-28; CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Training, CertMaster Learn for Cloud Essentials+, Module 2: Business Principles of Cloud Environments, Lesson 2.4: Cloud Service Agreements, Topic 2.4.2: Service Level Agreements

• Question 57:

  Which of the following is a security advantage of using CDNs?

  A. Advanced threat inspection
  B. VPN sessions to the consumers
  C. Resiliency against DDoS attacks
  D. Data encryption at rest
  C. Resiliency against DDoS attacks

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  Explanation/Reference:

  A content delivery network (CDN) is a network of servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location. A CDN can improve the performance, reliability, and security of a web application by caching content closer to the users and reducing the load on the origin server. One of the security advantages of using a CDN is that it can provide resiliency against distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks, which are attempts to overwhelm a web server with a large number of requests from multiple sources. A CDN can mitigate DDoS attacks by: Distributing the traffic across multiple servers and locations, making it harder for attackers to target a single point of failure Filtering out malicious requests before they reach the origin server, using techniques such as rate limiting, IP blocking, and challenge-response mechanisms Absorbing the attack traffic with greater bandwidth and resources than the origin server, reducing the impact on the web application's availability and performance References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide, Chapter 4: Security in the Cloud, page 152; Why use a CDN? | CDN benefits | Cloudflare; What Is DNS Security? How Does It Work? - Cisco Umbrella; What is DNS Security? - Cisco Umbrella; What Is DNS Security? DNS vs DNS Security vs DNSSEC | Fortinet

• Question 58:

  A cloud administrator configures a server to insert an entry into a log file whenever an administrator logs in to the server remotely. Which of the following BEST describes the type of policy being used?

  A. Audit
  B. Authorization
  C. Hardening
  D. Access
  A. Audit

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  Explanation/Reference:

  An audit policy is a set of rules and guidelines that define how to monitor and record the activities and events that occur on a system or network1. An audit policy can help track and report the actions of users, applications, processes, or devices, and provide evidence of compliance, security, or performance issues. An audit policy can also help deter unauthorized or malicious activities, as the users know that their actions are being logged and reviewed. A cloud administrator who configures a server to insert an entry into a log file whenever an administrator logs in to the server remotely is using an audit policy, as they are enabling the collection and recording of a specific event that relates to the access and management of the server. The log file can then be used to verify the identity, time, and frequency of the administrator logins, and to detect any anomalies or suspicious activities. An authorization policy is a set of rules and guidelines that define what actions or resources a user or a system can access or perform2. An authorization policy can help enforce the principle of least privilege, which means that users or systems are only granted the minimum level of access or permissions they need to perform their tasks. An authorization policy can also help prevent unauthorized or malicious activities, as the users or systems are restricted from accessing or performing actions that are not allowed or necessary. A hardening policy is a set of rules and guidelines that define how to reduce the attack surface and vulnerability of a system or network3. A hardening policy can help improve the security and resilience of a system or network, by applying various measures such as disabling unnecessary services, removing default accounts, applying patches and updates, configuring firewalls and antivirus software, etc. A hardening policy can also help prevent unauthorized or malicious activities, as the users or systems are faced with more obstacles and challenges to compromise the system or network. An access policy is a set of rules and guidelines that define who or what can access a system or network, and under what conditions or circumstances4. An access policy can help control the authentication and identification of users or systems, and the verification and validation of their credentials. An access policy can also help prevent unauthorized or malicious activities, as the users or systems are required to prove their identity and legitimacy before accessing the system or network. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide, Chapter 6: Cloud Service Management, pages 229- 230.

• Question 59:

  A systems administrator needs to transfer 300GB of data to the cloud every month. Given the information below:

  

  Which of the following connection methods would be the MOST cost-effective and satisfy the monthly transfer requirements?

  A. VPN (100MB)
  B. Direct Connect (500MB)
  C. Enhanced VPN (200MB)
  D. Enhanced Direct Connect (1GB)
  B. Direct Connect (500MB)

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  Explanation/Reference:

  According to the CompTIA Cloud Essentials objectives and documents, the most cost- effective and satisfying monthly transfer requirements connection method would be Direct Connect (500MB). This is because it has a fixed cost of $200 per month and a transfer limit of up to 250GB, which is enough to satisfy the 300GB monthly transfer requirement. Additionally, it has a lower cost per GB after the transfer limit is reached compared to the other options. The other connection methods are either more expensive or insufficient for the monthly transfer requirement. VPN (100MB) has a fixed cost of $50 per month and a transfer limit of up to 50GB, which is not enough for the 300GB monthly transfer requirement. Enhanced VPN (200MB) has a fixed cost of $100 per month and a transfer limit of up to 100GB, which is also not enough for the 300GB monthly transfer requirement. Enhanced Direct Connect (1GB) has a fixed cost of $400 per month and a transfer limit of up to 500GB, which is more than enough for the 300GB monthly transfer requirement, but also more expensive than Direct Connect (500MB). References: 1, 2, 3

• Question 60:

  Which of the following security concerns is BEST addressed by moving systems to the cloud?

  A. Availability
  B. Authentication
  C. Confidentiality
  D. Integrity
  A. Availability

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Availability is the security concern that is best addressed by moving systems to the cloud. Availability refers to the ability of a system or service to be accessible and functional when needed by authorized users. Availability is one of the key benefits of cloud computing, as it provides high reliability, scalability, and performance for the cloud systems and services. Cloud providers use various techniques and technologies to ensure availability, such as: Redundancy: Cloud providers replicate the data and resources across multiple locations, such as regions, zones, or data centers, to prevent single points of failure and provide backup and failover capabilities in case of disasters or disruptions. Load balancing: Cloud providers distribute the workload and traffic among multiple servers or instances to optimize the resource utilization and performance of the cloud systems and services. Auto-scaling: Cloud providers automatically adjust the amount of resources allocated to the cloud systems and services based on the demand or usage, to prevent overloading or underutilizing the resources and ensure consistent availability. Monitoring and recovery: Cloud providers continuously monitor the health and status of the cloud systems and services, and provide alerts and notifications in case of any issues or incidents. Cloud providers also provide tools and methods to recover the cloud systems and services from failures or errors, such as snapshots, backups, or restore points. Availability is different from other security concerns, such as authentication, confidentiality, or integrity. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity and credentials of a user or system before granting access to the cloud systems and services. Confidentiality is the process of protecting the data and information from unauthorized access or disclosure, such as by using encryption, access control, or data masking. Integrity is the process of ensuring the data and information are accurate, complete, and consistent, and have not been modified or corrupted by unauthorized or malicious parties, such as by using hashing, digital signatures, or checksums. References: Cloud Computing Availability - CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ (CLO-002) Cert Guide, Cloud Security ?Amazon Web Services (AWS), Azure infrastructure availability - Azure security | Microsoft Learn, What is Cloud Security? Cloud Security Defined | IBM