CompTIA CLO-002 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CLO-002 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 171:

  An organization has experienced repeated occurrences of system configurations becoming incorrect over time. After implementing corrections on all system configurations across the enterprise, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) purchased an automated tool that will monitor system configurations and identify any deviations. In the future, whic' if th following should be used to identify incorrectly configured systems?

  A. Baseline
  B. Gap analysis
  C. Benchmark
  D. Current and future requirements
  A. Baseline

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  Explanation/Reference:

  A baseline is a standard or reference point that is used to measure and compare the current state of a system or process. A baseline can be established for various aspects of a system, such as performance, security, configuration, functionality, or quality. A baseline can help to identify deviations, anomalies, or changes that occur over time, and to evaluate the impact of those changes on the system or process. A baseline can also help to restore a system or process to its original or desired state, by providing a reference for corrective actions. In this case, the organization has experienced repeated occurrences of system configurations becoming incorrect over time, which can affect the security, reliability, and functionality of the systems. After implementing corrections on all system configurations across the enterprise, the CISO purchased an automated tool that will monitor system configurations and identify any deviations. In the future, the organization should use a baseline to identify incorrectly configured systems, by comparing the current system configurations with the baseline system configurations that were established after the corrections. A baseline can help the organization to detect and prevent configuration drift, which is the gradual but unintentional divergence of a system's actual configuration settings from its secure baseline configuration. A baseline can also help the organization to apply configuration management, which is the process of planning, identifying, controlling, and verifying the configuration of a system or process throughout its lifecycle. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide,

  Chapter 4:

  Cloud Security, Section 4.2: Cloud Security Concepts, Page 153. What a Baseline Configuration Is and How to Prevent Configuration Drift - Netwrix1 Configuration Baselines

  -AcqNotes2

• Question 172:

  A DevOps team wants to document the upgrade steps for its public database solution. The team needs a dedicated virtual environment separate from the production systems to replicate multiple installations. Which of the following BEST represents what the team needs?

  A. Containerization
  B. Cold storage
  C. Infrastructure as code
  D. Sandboxing
  D. Sandboxing

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  Explanation/Reference:

  According to the CompTIA Cloud Essentials objectives and documents, sandboxing is the best option for the DevOps team that wants to document the upgrade steps for its public database solution. Sandboxing is a technique that creates a virtual environment that is isolated from the production systems and allows the team to replicate multiple installations without affecting the real data or applications. Sandboxing is useful for testing, debugging, and experimenting with new features or configurations in a safe and controlled way. Sandboxing can also help the team to identify and resolve any potential issues or errors before deploying the upgrade to the production environment. The other options are not as suitable for the team's needs. Containerization is a method of packaging software code with the necessary dependencies and libraries to run it on any platform or cloud. Containerization is beneficial for creating portable and scalable applications that can run consistently across different environments. However, containerization does not provide a dedicated virtual environment that is separate from the production systems, nor does it allow the team to replicate multiple installations of the same software. Cold storage is a type of data storage that is used for infrequently accessed or archived data. Cold storage is typically cheaper and slower than hot storage, which is used for frequently accessed or active data. Cold storage is not relevant for the team's need to document the upgrade steps for its public database solution, as it does not involve data storage or access. Infrastructure as code is a practice of managing and provisioning cloud infrastructure using code or scripts, rather than manual processes or graphical user interfaces. Infrastructure as code is advantageous for automating and standardizing the deployment and configuration of cloud resources, such as servers, networks, or storage. However, infrastructure as code does not provide a dedicated virtual environment that is separate from the production systems, nor does it allow the team to replicate multiple installations of the same software. References: 1, 2, 3, 4

• Question 173:

  Which of the following would help a company avoid failure of a cloud project due to a lack of adherence of the company's operations and business processes to a cloud solution?

  A. Cloud managed services
  B. Company baseline
  C. Proof of value
  D. Industry benchmarks
  C. Proof of value

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  Explanation/Reference:

  A proof of value (POV) is a method of testing a cloud solution before fully adopting it, to ensure that it meets the company's operations and business processes. A POV can help a company avoid failure of a cloud project by validating the feasibility, functionality, and benefits of the cloud solution, and identifying any gaps or issues that need to be resolved. A POV can also help a company compare different cloud solutions and select the best one for their needs. A POV is different from a proof of concept (POC), which is a more technical demonstration of the cloud solution's capabilities and performance. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO002), Chapter 3: Cloud Planning, Section 3.2: Cloud Adoption, Subsection 3.2.2: Proof of Value1

• Question 174:

  In a DevOps environment there is a requirement to start building application solutions in an efficient manner without any dependent components. Which of the following should a DevOps engineer do to meet these requirements?

  A. Build the applications in QA, and then enable resource tagging.
  B. Build the applications in QA, and then clone and deploy them in production.
  C. Use templates for building the applications.
  D. Use templates and enable auto-scaling.
  C. Use templates for building the applications.

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Templates are reusable files that contain predefined content, logic, and parameters for creating or deploying cloud resources and services1. Templates can help DevOps engineers to start building application solutions in an efficient manner without any dependent components, as they can automate and standardize the provisioning and configuration of the cloud environment2. Templates can also enable faster and more consistent delivery of applications, as they can reduce errors, improve quality, and facilitate collaboration and integration3. Templates can be written in various languages and formats, such as JSON, YAML, XML, or PowerShell, depending on the cloud provider and platform. For example, Azure Resource Manager templates, AWS CloudFormation templates, and Google Cloud Deployment Manager templates are some of the common types of templates used for building cloud applications . Building the applications in QA, and then enabling resource tagging, is not a valid option, as resource tagging is a feature that allows users to assign metadata to cloud resources, such as name, purpose, owner, or cost center, to facilitate management, monitoring, and billing. Resource tagging does not help to build application solutions without any dependent components, nor does it automate or standardize the cloud environment. Building the applications in QA, and then cloning and deploying them in production, is not a valid option, as cloning is a process of creating an exact copy of a cloud resource or service, such as a virtual machine, a database, or a storage account. Cloning does not help to build application solutions without any dependent components, nor does it automate or standardize the cloud environment. Cloning may also introduce security and compliance risks, as the cloned resources may contain sensitive or confidential data that need to be protected or removed. Using templates and enabling auto-scaling, is not a valid option, as auto-scaling is a feature that allows cloud resources and services to automatically adjust their capacity and performance based on the changes in demand or workload. Auto-scaling does not help to build application solutions without any dependent components, nor does it automate or standardize the cloud environment. Auto-scaling is mainly used to optimize the resource utilization and cost efficiency of the cloud applications, as well as to improve their availability and reliability. References:

  1: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO-002), Chapter 6, page 161.

  2: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO-002), Chapter 6, page 162.

  3: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO-002), Chapter 6, page 163.

  [4]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO-002), Chapter 6, page 164.

  [5]: Azure Resource Manager templates

  [6]: AWS CloudFormation templates

  [7]: Google Cloud Deployment Manager templates

  [8]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO-002), Chapter 6, page 167.

  [9]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO-002), Chapter 6, page 168.

  [10]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO-002), Chapter 6, page 169.

  [11]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO-002), Chapter 6, page 170.

  [12]: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO-002), Chapter 6, page 171

• Question 175:

  A web developer configured an application to have a local user database option to ensure the application can still be used if the corporate directory is not responsive to login requests. Which of the following security concepts BEST describes having this second database?

  A. Access
  B. Authorization
  C. Auditing
  D. Availability
  D. Availability

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Availability is one of the three basic functions of security management that are present in all systems. Availability is the assertion that a computer system is available or accessible by an authorized user whenever it is needed. Systems have high order of availability to ensure that the system operates as expected when needed1. Availability provides building of fault tolerance system in the products. It also ensures the backup processing by including hot and cold sites in the disaster recovery planning1. Having a local user database option to ensure the application can still be used if the corporate directory is not responsive to login requests is an example of availability, as it ensures that the users can access the application even if the primary authentication service is unavailable. This is a form of backup processing that provides an alternative means of accessing the application in case of a failure or outage. Having a local user database option does not affect the access, authorization, or auditing of the application, as these are related to the identification, verification, and monitoring of the users, not the availability of the application. References: Availability in Information Security - GeeksforGeeks; 5 Security Concepts Every Developer Should Understand; The 7 Basic Principles of IT Security - Techopedia.

• Question 176:

  A company wants to process a batch job in a faster, cost-effective manner. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

  A. Implement right-sizing.
  B. Increase CPU usage.
  C. Utilize spot instances.
  D. Add storage.
  C. Utilize spot instances.

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Spot instances are cloud computing resources that are available at a lower price than the regular on-demand price, but can be interrupted and reclaimed by the cloud provider at any time1. Spot instances are ideal for batch jobs that have flexible completion times and can tolerate failures, as they can provide faster and cheaper computing power than regular instances2. Spot instances can also be combined with other pricing options, such as on-demand or reserved instances, to optimize the performance and cost of batch jobs3. Implementing right-sizing is a technique of adjusting the size and type of cloud resources to match the actual needs and usage patterns of an application4. Right-sizing can help reduce the cost and improve the efficiency of cloud resources, but it does not necessarily make the batch job faster, as it depends on the workload and demand of the job. Increasing CPU usage is a measure of how much processing power is being consumed by an application or a system. Increasing CPU usage can make the batch job faster, but it can also increase the cost and risk of overloading the system. Increasing CPU usage is not a solution by itself, but rather a consequence of using more or larger cloud resources. Adding storage is a process of increasing the amount or capacity of data that can be stored in the cloud. Adding storage can help store more data or backup data for the batch job, but it does not directly affect the speed or cost of the batch job, as it depends on the type and performance of the storage service. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide, Chapter 5: Cloud Resource Management, pages 191-192.

• Question 177:

  A redundancy option must be provided for an on-premises server cluster. The financial team is concerned about the cost of extending to the cloud. Which of the following resources about the on-premises infrastructure would BEST help to estimate cloud costs?

  A. Server cluster architecture diagram
  B. Compute and storage reporting
  C. Industry benchmarks
  D. Resource management policy
  B. Compute and storage reporting

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Compute and storage reporting is the best resource to help estimate cloud costs for a redundancy option for an on-premises server cluster. Compute and storage reporting provides information about the current usage and performance of the on- premises servers, such as CPU, memory, disk, network, and I/O metrics. This information can help to determine the appropriate cloud service level and configuration that can match or exceed the on-premises capabilities. Compute and storage reporting can also help to identify any underutilized or overprovisioned resources that can be optimized to reduce costs12 Server cluster architecture diagram is not the best resource to help estimate cloud costs, because it only shows the logical and physical structure of the on-premises server cluster, such as the number, type, and location of the servers, and the connections and dependencies between them. This information can help to understand the high-level design and requirements of the server cluster, but it does not provide enough details about the actual usage and performance of the servers, which are more relevant for cloud cost estimation3 Industry benchmarks are not the best resource to help estimate cloud costs, because they only show the average or standard performance and cost of similar server clusters in the same industry or domain. Industry benchmarks can help to compare and evaluate the on- premises server cluster against the best practices and expectations of the market, but they do not reflect the specific needs and characteristics of the server cluster, which are more important for cloud cost estimation4 Resource management policy is not the best resource to help estimate cloud costs, because it only shows the rules and procedures for managing the on-premises server cluster, such as the roles and responsibilities, the service level agreements, the security and compliance standards, and the backup and recovery plans. Resource management policy can help to ensure the quality and reliability of the server cluster, but it does not provide enough information about the actual usage and performance of the servers, which are more critical for cloud cost estimation5 References: 1: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/blog/how-to-estimate-cloud-costs-a-pricing- crash-course 2: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cloud-essentials-clo-002-study- guide, page 48 3: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/architecture/ architectures/server-cluster 4: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cloud-essentials-clo-002-study-guide, page 50 5: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cloud-essentials-clo-002-study-guide, page 52

• Question 178:

  A company's new systems administrator has been asked to create a new user for the human resources department. Which of the following will help the systems administrator understand the user privileges for each role in the company?

  A. Identity and access control management policy
  B. Classification and management policy
  C. Change management policy
  D. Standard operating procedures
  A. Identity and access control management policy

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  Explanation/Reference:

  An identity and access control management policy is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, and rules for managing the identities and access rights of users in an organization1. It specifies how users are authenticated, authorized, and audited when they access the organization's resources, such as systems, applications, data, and networks1. An identity and access control management policy also describes the processes and procedures for creating, modifying, suspending, and deleting user accounts and privileges, as well as the standards and guidelines for selecting and managing passwords, tokens, certificates, and other authentication factors1. An identity and access control management policy can help the systems administrator understand the user privileges for each role in the company, as it defines the access levels and permissions that are granted to different types of users, such as employees, contractors, vendors, partners, and customers1. The policy also outlines the criteria and conditions for granting, changing, or revoking access rights, based on the principle of least privilege and the need-to-know basis1. By following the identity and access control management policy, the systems administrator can ensure that the new user for the human resources department has the appropriate and secure access to the resources that are relevant to their job function and responsibilities1. References: 1: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Study Guide, Second Edition (Exam CLO-002), Chapter 3: Cloud Planning, Section 3.2: Cloud Adoption, Subsection 3.2.1: Identity and Access Management

• Question 179:

  An organization plans to keep three of its cloud servers online for another nine months and a fourth server online for a year. The current pricing is $200 per month per server. The cloud provider announced the sale price of $1,500 per year per reserved instance.

  Which of the following represents the cost savings by converting all four of the cloud servers to reserved instances?

  A. $900
  B. $1,800
  C. $2,400
  D. $3,600
  B. $1,800

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  Explanation/Reference:

  The cost savings by converting all four of the cloud servers to reserved instances can be calculated as follows:

  The current pricing is $200 per month per server, which means the total cost for keeping three servers online for another nine months is $200 x 3 x 9 = $5,400, and the total cost for keeping one server online for a year is $200 x 1 x 12 =

  $2,400. The total cost for all four servers is $5,400 + $2,400 = $7,800. The sale price of $1,500 per year per reserved instance means the total cost for converting all four servers to reserved instances is $1,500 x 4 = $6,000. The cost savings

  by converting all four servers to reserved instances is $7,800 - $6,000 = $1,800.

  References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Certification Exam Objectives1, CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ Study Guide, Chapter 2: Business Principles of Cloud Environments2, Cloud Essentials+ Certification Training3

• Question 180:

  Which of the following explains why a cloud provider would establish and publish a format data sanitization policy for its clients?

  A. To establish guidelines for how the provider will cleanse any data being imported during a cloud migration
  B. To be transparent about how the CSP will handle malware infections that may impact systems housing client data
  C. To provide a value add for clients that will assist in cleansing records at no additional charge
  D. To ensure clients feel comfortable about the handling of any leftover data after termination of the contract
  D. To ensure clients feel comfortable about the handling of any leftover data after termination of the contract

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  Explanation/Reference:

  A data sanitization policy is a document that defines how a cloud service provider (CSP) will permanently delete or destroy any data that belongs to its clients after the termination of the contract or the deletion of the service. Data sanitization is a process that ensures that the data is not recoverable by any means, even by advanced forensic tools. Data sanitization is important for cloud security and privacy, as it prevents unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse of the data by the CSP or any third parties. A data sanitization policy can help the CSP demonstrate its compliance with the data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), that may apply to its clients' data. A data sanitization policy can also help the CSP build trust and confidence with its clients, as it assures them that their data will be handled securely and responsibly, and that they will have full control and ownership of their data. Therefore, option D is the best explanation of why a cloud provider would establish and publish a format data sanitization policy for its clients. Option A is incorrect because it does not explain why a cloud provider would establish and publish a format data sanitization policy for its clients, but rather how the provider will cleanse any data being imported during a cloud migration. Data cleansing is a process that improves the quality and accuracy of the data by removing or correcting any errors, inconsistencies, or duplicates. Data cleansing is not the same as data sanitization, as it does not involve deleting or destroying the data. Option B is incorrect because it does not explain why a cloud provider would establish and publish a format data sanitization policy for its clients, but rather how the CSP will handle malware infections that may impact systems housing client data. Malware is a malicious software that can harm or compromise the systems or data of the CSP or its clients. Malware prevention and detection are important aspects of cloud security, but they are not the same as data sanitization, as they do not involve deleting or destroying the data. Option C is incorrect because it does not explain why a cloud provider would establish and publish a format data sanitization policy for its clients, but rather how the CSP will provide a value add for clients that will assist in cleansing records at no additional charge. Data cleansing, as explained above, is a process that improves the quality and accuracy of the data, not a process that deletes or destroys the data. Data cleansing may or may not be offered by the CSP as a value-added service, but it is not the same as data sanitization, which is a mandatory and essential service for cloud security and privacy. References: CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ CLO-002 Study Guide, Chapter 5: Cloud Security Principles, Section 5.2: Data Security Concepts, Page 1471 and Data sanitization for cloud storage | Infosec