Cisco Cisco Certifications CCST-NETWORKING Questions & Answers

• Question 21:

  In the network shown in the following graphic, Switch1 is a Layer 2 switch.

  

  PC-A sends a frame to PC-C. Switch1 does not have a mapping entry for the MAC address of PC-C. Which action does Switch1 take?

  A. Switch1 queries Switch2 for the MAC address of PC-C.

  B. Switch1 drops the frame and sends an error message back to PC-A.

  C. Switch1 floods the frame out all active ports except port G0/1.

  D. Switch1 sends an ARP request to obtain the MAC address of PC-C.

  Correct Answer: B

  In a network, when a Layer 2 switch (like Switch1) receives a frame destined for a MAC address that is not in its MAC address table, it performs a flooding operation. This means the switch will send the frame out of all ports except the port on

  which the frame was received. This flooding ensures that if the destination device is connected to one of the other ports, it will receive the frame and respond, allowing the switch to learn its MAC address. A. Switch1 queries Switch2 for the

  MAC address of PC-C: This does not happen in Layer 2 switches; they do not query other switches for MAC addresses. A. Switch1 drops the frame and sends an error message back to PC-A: This is not the default behavior for unknown

  unicast frames. D. Switch1 sends an ARP request to obtain the MAC address of PC-C: ARP is used by devices to map IP addresses to MAC addresses, not by switches to find unknown MAC addresses.

  Thus, the correct answer is B. Switch1 floods the frame out all active ports except port G0/1.

  References:

  Cisco Layer 2 Switching Overview

  Switching Mechanisms (Cisco)

• Question 22:

  Which two statements are true about the IPv4 address of the default gateway configured on a host? (Choose 2.)

  Note: You will receive partial credit for each correct selection.

  A. The IPv4 address of the default gateway must be the first host address in the subnet.

  B. The same default gateway IPv4 address is configured on each host on the local network.

  C. The default gateway is the Loopback0 interface IPv4 address of the router connected to the same local network as the host.

  D. The default gateway is the IPv4 address of the router interface connected to the same local network as the host.

  E. Hosts learn the default gateway IPv4 address through router advertisement messages.

  Correct Answer: BD

  -Statement B: "The same default gateway IPv4 address is configured on each host on the local network." This is true because all hosts on the same local network (subnet) use the same default gateway IP address to send packets destined for

  other networks.

  -Statement D: "The default gateway is the IPv4 address of the router interface connected to the same local network as the host." This is true because the default gateway is the IP address of the router's interface that is directly connected to

  the local network.

  -Statement A: "The IPv4 address of the default gateway must be the first host address in the subnet." This is not necessarily true. The default gateway can be any address within the subnet range. -Statement C: "The default gateway is the

  Loopback0 interface IPv4 address of the router connected to the same local network as the host." This is not true; the default gateway is the IP address of the router's physical or logical interface connected to the local network.

  -Statement E: "Hosts learn the default gateway IPv4 address through router advertisement messages." This is generally true for IPv6 with Router Advertisement (RA) messages, but not typically how IPv4 hosts learn the default gateway

  address.

• Question 23:

  An engineer configured a new VLAN named VLAN2 for the Data Center team. When the teamtries to ping addresses outside VLAN2 from a computer in VLAN2, they are unable to reach them.

  What should the engineer configure?

  A. Additional VLAN

  B. Default route

  C. Default gateway

  D. Static route

  Correct Answer: C

  When devices within a VLAN are unable to reach addresses outside their VLAN, it typically indicates that they do not have a configured path to external networks. The engineer should configure a default gateway for VLAN2. The default gateway is the IP address of the router's interface that is connected to the VLAN, which will route traffic from the VLAN to other networks12.

  References := -Understanding and Configuring VLAN Routing and Bridging on a Router Using the IRB Feature -VLAN 2 not able to ping gateway - Cisco Community ========================= -VLANs: Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs) logically segment network traffic to improve security and performance. Devices within the same VLAN can communicate directly. -Default Gateway: For devices in VLAN2 to communicate with devices outside their VLAN, they need a default gateway configured. The default gateway is typically a router or Layer 3 switch that routes traffic between different VLANs and subnets. -Additional VLAN: Not needed in this scenario as the issue is related to routing traffic outside VLAN2, not creating another VLAN. -Default Route: While a default route on the router may be necessary, the primary issue for devices within VLAN2 is to have a configured default gateway. -Static Route: This is used on routers to manually specify routes to specific networks but does not address the need for a default gateway on the client devices.

  References: -Cisco VLAN Configuration Guide: Cisco VLAN Configuration -Understanding and Configuring VLANs: VLANs Guide

• Question 24:

  A user initiates a trouble ticket stating that an external web page is not loading. You determine that other resources both internal and external are still reachable.

  Which command can you use to help locate where the issue is in the network path to the external web page?

  A. ping -t

  B. tracert

  C. ipconfig/all

  D. nslookup

  Correct Answer: B

  The tracert command is used to determine the route taken by packets across an IP network. When a user reports that an external web page is not loading, while other resources are accessible, it suggests there might be an issue at a certain

  point in the network path to the specific web page. The tracert command helps to diagnose where the breakdown occurs by displaying a list of routers that the packets pass through on their way to the destination. It can identify the network

  segment where the packets stop progressing,

  which is valuable for pinpointing where the connectivity issue lies. References := Cisco

  CCST Networking Certification FAQs ?CISCONET Training Solutions, Command Prompt (CMD): 10 network-related commands you should know, Network Troubleshooting Commands Guide: Windows, Macand; Linux - Comparitech, How to

  Use the Traceroute and Ping Commands to Troubleshoot Network, Network Troubleshooting Techniques: Ping, Traceroute, PathPing. -tracert Command: This command is used to determine the path packets take to reach a destination. It lists

  all the hops (routers) along the way and can help identify where the delay or failure occurs. -ping -t: This command sends continuous ping requests and is useful for determining if a host is reachable but does not provide path information. ipconfig /all: This command displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and can be used to verify network settings but not to trace a network path.

  -nslookup: This command queries the DNS to obtain domain name or IP address mapping,

  useful for DNS issues but not for tracing network paths.

  References:

  -Microsoft tracert Command: tracert Command Guide

  -Troubleshooting Network Issues with tracert: Network Troubleshooting Guide

• Question 25:

  Which information is included in the header of a UDP segment?

  A. IP addresses

  B. Sequence numbers

  C. Port numbers

  D. MAC addresses

  Correct Answer: C

  The header of a UDP (User Datagram Protocol) segment includesport numbers. Specifically, it contains the source port number and the destination port number, which are used to identify the sending and receiving applications. UDP headers do not include IP addresses or MAC addresses, as those are part of the IP and Ethernet frame headers, respectively.Additionally, UDP does not use sequence numbers, which are a feature of TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) for ensuring reliable delivery of data segments1. References: Segmentation Explained with TCP and UDP Header User Datagram Protocol (UDP) - GeeksforGeeks Which three fields are used in a UDP segment header ========================= UDP Header: The header of a UDP segment includes the following key fields: IP Addresses: These are included in the IP header, not the UDP header. Sequence Numbers: These are part of the TCP header, not UDP. MAC Addresses: These are part of the Ethernet frame header and are not included in the UDP header. References: RFC 768 - User Datagram Protocol: RFC 768 Cisco Guide on UDP: Cisco UDP Guide

• Question 26:

  A Cisco PoE switch is shown in the following image. Which type of port will provide both data connectivity and power to an IP phone?

  

  A. Port identified with number 2

  B. Ports identified with numbers 3 and 4

  C. Ports identified with number 6

  D. Ports identified with number 7

  Correct Answer: C

  In the provided image of the Cisco PoE switch, the ports identified with number 6 are the standard RJ-45 Ethernet ports typically found on switches that provide both data connectivity and Power over Ethernet (PoE). PoE ports are designed to

  supply power to devices such as IP phones, wireless access points, and other PoE-enabled devices directly through the Ethernet cable.

  Ports:

  2: Console port (for management and configuration)

  3 and 4: Specific function ports (often for management)

  6: RJ-45 Ethernet ports (capable of providing PoE)

  7: SFP ports (for fiber connections, typically do not provide PoE) Thus, the correct answer is C. Ports identified with number 6.

  References:

  cisco Catalyst 2960-L Series Switches Data Sheet Cisco PoE Overview

• Question 27:

  A help desk technician receives the four trouble tickets listed below. Which ticket should receive the highest priority and be addressed first?

  A. Ticket 1: A user requests relocation of a printer to a different network jack in the same office. The jack must be patched and made active.

  B. Ticket 2: An online webinar is taking place in the conference room. The video conferencing equipment lost internet access.

  C. Ticket 3: A user reports that response time for a cloud-based application is slower than usual.

  D. Ticket 4: Two users report that wireless access in the cafeteria has been down for the last hour.

  Correct Answer: B

  When prioritizing trouble tickets, the most critical issues affecting business operations or high-impact activities should be addressed first. Here's a breakdown of the tickets:

  Ticket 1: Relocation of a printer, while necessary, is not urgent and does not impact critical operations.

  Ticket 2: An ongoing webinar losing internet access is critical, especially if the webinar is time-sensitive and involves multiple participants. Ticket 3: Slower response time for a cloud-based application is important but typically not as urgent as

  a complete loss of internet access for a live event. Ticket 4: Wireless access down in the cafeteria affects users but does not have the same immediate impact as a live webinar losing connectivity. Thus, the correct answer is B. Ticket 2: An

  online webinar is taking place in the conference room. The video conferencing equipment lost internet access.

  References:

  IT Help Desk Best Practices

  Prioritizing IT Support Tickets

• Question 28:

  A Cisco switch is not accessible from the network. You need to view its running configuration.

  Which out-of-band method can you use to access it?

  A. SNMP

  B. Console

  C. SSH

  D. Telnet

  Correct Answer: B

  

  Out-of-band management

  When a Cisco switch is not accessible from the network, the recommended out-of-band method to access its running configuration is through theconsole port. Out-of-band management involves accessing the network device through a

  dedicated management channel that is not part of the data network.The console port provides direct access to the switch's Command Line Interface (CLI) without using the network, which is essential when the switch cannot be accessed

  remotely via the network12.

  References:

  Out-of-band (OOB) network interface configuration guidelines Out of band management configuration

  =========================

  If you have any more questions or need further assistance, feel free to ask!

• Question 29:

  You want to store files that will be accessible by every user on your network.

  Which endpoint device do you need?

  A. Access point

  B. Server

  C. Hub

  D. Switch

  Correct Answer: B

  To store files that will be accessible by every user on a network, you would need aserver. A server is a computer system that provides data to other computers. It can serve data to systems on a local network (LAN) or a wide network (WAN)

  over the internet.In this context, a file server would be set up to store and manage files, allowing users on the network to access them from their own devices1.

  References:

  What is a Server?

  Understanding Servers and Their Functions

  A server is a computer designed to process requests and deliver data to other computers over a local network or the internet. In this case, to store files that will be accessible by every user on the network, a file server is the appropriate

  endpoint device. It provides a centralized location for storing and managing files, allowing users to access and share files easily. A. Access point: Provides wireless connectivity to a network. C. Hub: A basic networking device that connects

  multiple Ethernet devices together, making them act as a single network segment. D. Switch: A networking device that connects devices on a computer network by using packet switching to forward data to the destination device.

  Thus, the correct answer is B. Server.

  References:

  File Server Overview (Cisco)

  Server Roles in Networking (Cisco)

• Question 30:

  Which protocol allows you to securely upload files to another computer on the internet?

  A. SFTP

  B. ICMP

  C. NTP

  D. HTTP

  Correct Answer: A

  SFTP, or Secure File Transfer Protocol, is a protocol that allows for secure file transfer capabilities between networked hosts. It is a secure extension of the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). SFTP encrypts both commands and data, preventing

  passwords and sensitive information from being transmitted openly over the network. It is typically used for secure file transfers over the internet and is built on the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol1.

  References:

  -What Is SFTP? (Secure File Transfer Protocol)

  -How to Use SFTP to Safely Transfer Files: A Step-by-Step Guide

  -Secure File Transfers: Best Practices, Protocols And Tools

  The Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a secure version of the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) that uses SSH (Secure Shell) to encrypt all commands and data. This ensures that sensitive information, such as usernames, passwords, and

  files being transferred, are securely transmitted over the network.

  -ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for network diagnostics and is not designed for file transfer.

  -NTP (Network Time Protocol) is used to synchronize clocks between computer systems and is not related to file transfer.

  -HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol) is used for transmitting web pages over the internet and does not inherently provide secure file transfer capabilities.

  Thus, the correct protocol that allows secure uploading of files to another computer on the internet is SFTP.

  References:

  -Cisco Learning Network

  -SFTP Overview (Cisco)