AAPC AAPC-CPC Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

AAPC AAPC-CPC Online Questions & Answers

• Question 31:

  A cardiologist uses the hospital's equipment for a cardiac stress test as he doesn't own equipment for the test. He supervises the test and provides the interpretation and report of the test.

  What CPT codes are reported?

  A. 93016, 93018
  B. 93015, 93018
  C. 93015, 93016
  D. 93016, 93017, 93018
  B. 93015, 93018

• Question 32:

  A physician performs excisional debridement for a patient with multiple wounds. A wound on the lower back measures 12 sq cm and involves the fascia for the debridement. A wound on the left shoulder measures 8 sq cm, and one on the left lower leg measures 16 sq cm, involving subcutaneous tissue for the debridement.

  What CPT(R) codes are reported?

  A. 11042, 11045
  B. 11043, 11042-59, 11042-59
  C. 11043, 11046
  D. 11043, 11042-59, 11045
  D. 11043, 11042-59, 11045

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  Explanation

  11043. No add-on code 11046 is needed because the described size is below an additional 20 sq cm threshold. The shoulder (8 sq cm) and lower-leg (16 sq cm) wounds involve subcutaneous tissue, which is coded with 11042 for the first 20 sq cm, or part thereof, at the subcutaneous depth. Their combined area is 24 sq cm, so you report 11042 plus add-on 11045 for the additional 4 sq cm beyond the first 20. Because two different depth families are billed, fascia vs. subcutaneous, a distinct procedural service modifier, here -59 on 11042, supports reporting both depths when documentation shows separate wounds and levels treated.

  This matches option D.

• Question 33:

  A physician conducts a 15-minute phone call discussing medication management.

  How is this reported?

  A. 98004
  B. 98012
  C. 98016
  D. 99447
  B. 98012

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  Explanation

  98012 = Telephone E/M, 11-20 minutes.

  99447 is for interprofessional consultations, not patient calls.

• Question 34:

  A patient presents for a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver with ultrasound guidance to assess the severity of his primary biliary cirrhosis.

  What CPT(R) and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

  A. 47100, K74.5
  B. 47000, 10005, 76942, K74.3
  C. 47000, K74.5
  D. 47000, 76942, K74.3
  D. 47000, 76942, K74.3

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  Explanation

  47000 = Percutaneous liver biopsy.

  76942 = Ultrasound guidance for needle placement.

  K74.3 = Primary biliary cirrhosis.

  The biopsy is percutaneous, so 47000 is reported. Ultrasound guidance is documented, so 76942 is also reported. Primary biliary cirrhosis is reported with K74.3.

• Question 35:

  What CPT(R) code is reported for the insertion of Heyman capsules for clinical brachytherapy?

  A. 55875
  B. 55920
  C. 57155
  D. 58346
  D. 58346

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  Explanation

  Heyman capsules are applicators used in gynecologic brachytherapy, classically for intracavitary uterine placement as part of internal radiation therapy. CPT(R) distinguishes between prostate brachytherapy services and gynecologic applicator placements. Code 55875 is associated with prostate brachytherapy procedures, and 57155 is for insertion of uterine tandem and/or vaginal ovoids, which is a different applicator system. The code that specifically aligns with insertion of Heyman capsules is 58346.

  CPC exam strategy: When a question names a specific device or apparatus, such as Heyman capsules, it is usually pointing to a very specific CPT(R) code. Also, keep the anatomic system straight. Heyman capsules are not a prostate service and not simply a generic radiation therapy code; they are a named gynecologic brachytherapy applicator insertion. Therefore, among the given options, 58346 is the correct code to report.

• Question 36:

  A business requires drug testing for cocaine and methamphetamines prior to hiring a job candidate. A single analysis with direct optical observation is performed, followed by a confirmation for cocaine.

  Which codes are used for reporting the testing and confirmation?

  A. 80305 x 2, 80353
  B. 80306 x 2, 80353
  C. 80305, 80353
  D. 80306, 80375
  C. 80305, 80353

• Question 37:

  Patient has undergone open surgery for a left total knee arthroplasty. While in the recovery room, he continued to have severe postoperative pain. The surgeon ordered a femoral block for postoperative pain.

  The anesthesiologist evaluated the patient and performed a left femoral block, which provided significant post-operative pain relief.

  What CPT coding is reported?

  A. 01404, 64450, 01996
  B. 01380, 64447-59-LT
  C. 01402, 64447-59-LT
  D. 01402, 64448-59-LT, 01996
  D. 01402, 64448-59-LT, 01996

• Question 38:

  A patient has squamous cell carcinoma lesions destroyed with cryosurgery: 0.6 cm right dorsal foot and 2.0 cm left dorsal foot.

  What CPT(R) coding is reported?

  A. 17110
  B. 17262, 17261
  C. 17272, 17271
  D. 17000, 17003
  B. 17262, 17261

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  Explanation

  This is destruction of malignant lesions (squamous cell carcinoma).

  The foot is coded under the scalp, neck, hands, feet, and genitalia anatomic grouping for malignant lesion destruction codes.

  17271 = Malignant lesion destruction, scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia; lesion diameter 0.6-1.0 cm.

  17272 = Malignant lesion destruction, scalp, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia; lesion diameter 1.1-2.0 cm.

  Therefore, 17272 and 17271 are correct.

• Question 39:

  Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question: View MR 874276

  What E/M code is reported?

  A. 99282
  B. 99285
  C. 99284
  D. 99283
  D. 99283

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  Explanation

  To accurately code this emergency department visit, we need to assess the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).

  History:

  The documentation supports an expanded problem-focused history. This includes a chief complaint, a brief history of present illness (HPI), a review of systems (ROS) with pertinent positives and negatives, and a past medical history.

  Examination:

  The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (constitutional, HENT, respiratory) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint.

  Medical Decision Making:

  The MDM complexity is low. The physician is assessing a new problem, shortness of breath and weakness, with a low level of risk. No further testing or treatment is documented in this encounter.

  Based on these components, 99283 is the most appropriate code.

  Why other options are incorrect: 99282: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented. 99284 and 99285: Require a higher level of MDM, moderate or high complexity, and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation does not support this level of service.

  References:

  CPT Codes 99281-99285: Emergency department visits.

  1995 and 1997 Documentation Guidelines for Evaluation and Management Services: These guidelines provide detailed criteria for selecting the appropriate E/M code based on history, examination, and MDM.

• Question 40:

  Miranda is in her provider's office for follow-up of her diabetes. Her blood sugars remain at goal with continuing her prescribed medications.

  When referring to the MDM Table in the CPT(R) code book for number and complexity of problems addressed at the encounter, what type of problem is this considered?

  A. Acute, uncomplicated illness or injury
  B. Minimal problem
  C. Stable, chronic illness
  D. Stable, acute illness
  C. Stable, chronic illness

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  Explanation

  Problem Type Selection: indicating that the condition is stable with her current medication regimen.

  Miranda is following up on her diabetes, which is a chronic condition. Her blood sugars are controlled, Stable, chronic illness is defined in the CPT(R)MDM (Medical Decision Making) Table as a chronic condition that is under control and not currently worsening, even if ongoing management is required. This aligns with the patient's diabetes being well-managed with her prescribed medications.

  Why Other Options are incorrect: Option A, Acute, uncomplicated illness or injury is not applicable as diabetes is a chronic condition, not an acute issue.

  Option B, Minimal problem refers to conditions that are minor or self-limited and typically require little to no treatment, which does not apply to chronic conditions like diabetes. Option D, Stable, acute illness would refer to an acute condition that has stabilized, whereas diabetes is a chronic condition, not acute.

  AAPC and CPT(R) coding

  Guidelines: encounter on a controlled chronic condition like diabetes. According to the CPT(R)MDM Table, a "Stable, chronic illness" is the correct classification for a follow-up

  Therefore, the correct answer is C. Stable, chronic illness.