CompTIA 220-1201 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA 220-1201 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 391:

  A user logs on a PC and receives a message stating there is a duplicate IP address on the network. After a system restart, the user notices the same error.

  Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of the error?

  A. The user is still logged into another device.
  B. The user has set a static IP address.
  C. The user has moved to a different office.
  D. The user has wireless and wired connections.
  B. The user has set a static IP address.

• Question 392:

  Which of the following should a technician check when the display of a computer Is flickering?

  A. LCD type
  B. Refresh rate
  C. Screen resolution
  D. Pixel density
  B. Refresh rate

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  Explanation

  Display flickering is most commonly caused by an incorrect or unstable refresh rate setting. The refresh rate is the number of times per second (measured in Hz) that a monitor redraws the image. CompTIA A+ teaches that LCD, LED, and especially older CRT displays can exhibit flickering if the refresh rate is set too low or to a value unsupported by the monitor. For modern displays, typical refresh rates are 60 Hz, 75 Hz, 120 Hz, 144 Hz, and higher. If the refresh rate is mismatched--such as manually set above the monitor's rated capability-- the screen may flicker, blank intermittently, or show instability. Similarly, if the refresh rate is set too low, the user may perceive visible flicker, eye strain, or shimmering

  on the display.

  Checking and adjusting the refresh rate through the operating system's display settings (or GPU control panel) is the first and most direct troubleshooting step for flickering issues.

  The LCD type (A) has no bearing on flickering once installed. Screen resolution (C) affects clarity and scaling but does not cause flicker by itself. Pixel density (D) is a hardware characteristic and cannot cause flickering.

  Thus, the correct component to check when diagnosing display flicker is the refresh rate.

• Question 393:

  A company needs to support a 10Gbps throughput.

  Which of the following is the MINIMUM cable category that could be used?

  A. Cat 5
  B. Cat 5e
  C. Cat 6
  D. Cat 6a
  C. Cat 6

• Question 394:

  Which of the following utilizes TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext?

  A. SNMP
  B. SSH
  C. FTP
  D. Telnet
  C. FTP

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  Explanation

  FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext, which means the data is not encrypted and can be read by anyone who intercepts it. This makes FTP insecure for transferring sensitive information. SSH (Secure Shell), on the other hand, uses port 22 and encrypts data, making it more secure. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) uses ports 161/162 and is used to monitor network devices. Telnet uses port 23 and transfers data in cleartext, making it insecure.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 199

• Question 395:

  A user reports intermittent latency when accessing an internal website hosted at a remote office.

  Which of the following should a technician do? (Select two)

  A. Run ipconfig /all
  B. Run ping -t
  C. Run nslookup
  D. Examine the physical switchport
  E. Configure QoS
  F. Run tracert
  G. Call ISP
  B. Run ping -t
  F. Run tracert

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  Explanation

  When troubleshooting intermittent latency to a remote internal resource, CompTIA A+ recommends using tools that help identify where latency occurs and whether it is consistent or fluctuating over time. The best tools for this scenario are

  ping -t and tracert.

  Ping -t (B) sends continuous ICMP echo requests, allowing the technician to observe packet loss, fluctuating response times, or timeouts. This helps identify intermittent connectivity problems that occur at specific times, such as bandwidth congestion, routing instability, or wireless interference.

  Tracert (F) maps each hop between the local workstation and the remote office. If latency spikes occur only after a particular hop--such as a VPN tunnel, MPLS gateway, or inter-office router--that device becomes the suspected bottleneck.

  This makes tracert essential for isolating WAN-related slowdowns. Ipconfig /all (A) only provides local configuration and does not diagnose latency. Nslookup (C) is for DNS testing--not latency to a specific internal host. Examining switchports (D) helps with local issues but not remote latency. QoS (E) is a solution , not a troubleshooting step. Calling ISP (G) may be premature unless testing confirms ISP-related issues.

  Thus, ping -t and tracert are the correct diagnostic tools.

• Question 396:

  A company wants to migrate a large amount of data from an on-premises server to a cloud provider.

  Which connection type is most likely the fastest?

  A. Coaxial
  B. DSL
  C. Fiber
  D. SAN
  C. Fiber

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  Explanation

  When migrating large volumes of data to a cloud provider, CompTIA A+ notes that the transfer speed is dominated by the WAN (internet) connection speed. Among the given options, fiber-optic internet (C) provides the highest upload and download throughput, often delivering speeds from 1 Gbps to 10 Gbps or more, depending on the service. Fiber supports symmetrical upload speeds, which is critical because data migration requires heavy upstream bandwidth.

  Coaxial (A) and DSL (B) offer much lower upstream speeds--often under 30 Mbps--making them too slow for large-scale cloud migration. A SAN (D) is a local storage network that operates within the data center; it does not provide a path to the cloud and cannot replace an internet connection.

  Fiber's extremely high capacity, low latency, and resistance to electromagnetic interference make it the best and most efficient option for cloud migration performance.

• Question 397:

  Which of the following types of RAM is typically used in servers?

  A. SODIMM
  B. Rambus
  C. DDR3
  D. ECC
  D. ECC

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  Explanation

  ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers to provide error detection and correction, improving reliability in critical systems. It is designed to detect and correct single-bit errors, ensuring data integrity in environments where stability is paramount.

  Option A (SODIMM): Incorrect. SODIMM is typically used in laptops, not servers.

  Option B (Rambus): Incorrect. Rambus is an outdated RAM type and not commonly used today.

  Option C (DDR3): Incorrect. While DDR3 is a type of RAM, it is not specific to servers and does not provide error correction.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 3.2 (RAM types and their uses)

• Question 398:

  A technician needs to ensure all data communications on all network devices are encrypted when logging in to the console.

  Which of the following protocols should the technician enable?

  A. SSH
  B. LDAP
  C. FTPS
  D. SMTP
  A. SSH

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  Explanation

  SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts data communications for secure remote login and management of network devices, ensuring all console connections are encrypted.

  Why Not B (LDAP): LDAP is used for directory services and does not encrypt by default.

  Why Not C (FTPS): FTPS encrypts file transfers, not console communications.

  Why Not D (SMTP): SMTP is used for email transmission, not for securing login sessions.

  References:

  Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network security protocols.

• Question 399:

  A technician upgrades a PC with two DIMMs, for a total of 32GB. After installing the two DIMMs, the user notices the OS is reporting only 16GB.

  Which of the following tasks should the technician perform to resolve the issue in the most rapid, cost-effective way possible?

  A. Roll back recent system updates
  B. Reinstall RAM in different slots.
  C. Update the OS to the latest version
  D. Replace the faulty motherboard
  B. Reinstall RAM in different slots.

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  Explanation

  If newly installed RAM is not fully recognized, the most likely cause is incorrect installation or incompatible slots. Reseating or reinstalling the RAM modules in the correct slots can quickly resolve the issue without extra cost.

  From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 -Install and configure PC components: "If memory is not detected, check installation and reseat modules. Ensure they are placed in the correct, matched slots for dual-channel operation." Verified Source:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Installation CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

• Question 400:

  A customer recently lost data due to several unexpected shutdowns. Data integrity is important to the customer.

  Which of the following features should the technician choose to prevent data loss?

  A. Redundant power supply
  B. Uninterruptible power supply
  C. Modular power supply
  D. High-efficiency power supply
  B. Uninterruptible power supply

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  Explanation

  An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) protects systems against power outages by providing temporary backup power, giving users time to save data and safely shut down.

  From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 -Power protection:

  "A UPS supplies backup power to prevent data loss and hardware damage during outages or surges, ensuring system integrity."

  Verified Source:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Protection CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3