CompTIA 220-1201 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA 220-1201 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 241:

  Which of the following is most commonly used to increase 802.11 wireless throughput speed?

  A. Licensed bands
  B. Maximum transmission unit
  C. Transmit power
  D. Channel width
  D. Channel width

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is D. Channel width.

  According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Wireless: Channel width refers to the size of the frequency band used for Wi-Fi communication.

  Increasing channel width (e.g., from 20 MHz to 40 MHz, 80 MHz, or 160 MHz) allows more data to be transmitted at once, effectively increasing wireless throughput speed.

  Why the other options are incorrect:

  A. Licensed bands: Licensed spectrum is used for certain types of communication and does not directly increase Wi-Fi throughput.

  B. Maximum transmission unit (MTU): MTU defines the largest packet size transmitted over a network but is not the primary factor for increasing Wi-Fi throughput.

  C. Transmit power: Adjusting transmit power affects signal range and coverage but does not significantly increase throughput; it may improve connectivity but not data rates.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives - Networking: "Given a scenario, troubleshoot and configure wireless settings including channel selection, transmit power, and frequency bands." Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Wireless Networking.

• Question 242:

  A software developer wants to test a new application in an environment that limits access to the OS.

  Which of the following should the developer implement?

  A. Container
  B. Type 2 hypervisor
  C. VDI
  D. Quarantined PC
  A. Container

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  Explanation

  A container is the ideal environment for software testing when access to the underlying operating system must be restricted. CompTIA A+ explains that containers isolate applications from the host OS by packaging the app and all its dependencies into a controlled environment. This prevents the application from modifying or interfering with the host system and ensures predictable, consistent behavior across environments. Unlike virtual machines, containers do not include a full OS installation; they share the host OS kernel but run in isolated user-space environments. This makes them lightweight, fast to deploy, and secure--perfect for developers testing new or potentially unstable applications.

  A Type 2 hypervisor hosts full virtual machines but does not inherently limit OS access. A VDI provides remote desktops but is not designed for controlled application testing. A quarantined PC is used for isolating infected or suspicious systems, not structured development testing.

  Thus, containers provide the controlled, restricted environment required.

• Question 243:

  A user reports that their desktop PC does not turn on.

  Which of the following components would most likely cause the issue?

  A. PSU
  B. GPU
  C. RAM
  D. CPU
  A. PSU

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  Explanation

  If a desktop fails to power on entirely, the most probable cause is afaulty Power Supply Unit (PSU). If there are no lights, fans, or POST beeps, the PSU may have failed, cutting off all power to the motherboard and components.

  Option B (GPU):Could prevent video output, but the system would still power on and beep.

  Option C (RAM):Missing or faulty RAM would cause POST errors but not prevent startup entirely.

  Option D (CPU):A bad CPU may cause POST failure, but the system would usually at least power on.

  References:

  Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.

• Question 244:

  A technician installs a new printer for a workstation and tries to print a test page, but the page does not print. The technician looks at the print queue and notices that the printer is called 'Generic Printer."

  Which of the following BEST describes what the technician should do to fix this issue?

  A. Connect the printer with a USB cable rather than over the network.
  B. Install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS.
  C. Install the correct toner in the printer.
  D. Set the printer trays to allow duplex printing
  B. Install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS.

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  Explanation

  The technician should install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS to enable the computer to communicate with the printer. The generic printer name suggests that the drivers are missing or not installed correctly.

• Question 245:

  During an OS migration, a technician is unable to find compatible current software for a specialized hardware device.

  Which of the following actions should the technician take to complete the migration?

  A. Restrict user access.
  B. Virtualize the application.
  C. Replace the PC.
  D. Upgrade the BIOS to UEFI.
  B. Virtualize the application.

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  Explanation

  Virtualizing the application is the best action that a technician can take to complete the OS migration when there is no compatible current software for a specialized hardware device. Virtualizing the application means running the application in a virtual machine (VM) that emulates the previous OS environment that supports the application and the hardware device. This way, the technician can avoid the need to replace the PC or the hardware device, or to restrict user access to the application. Virtualizing the application also allows the technician to benefit from the new OS features and security updates, while maintaining the functionality and compatibility of the application and the hardware device. The other options are not as effective or feasible for this scenario. Restricting user access may prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the application or the hardware device, but it does not solve the compatibility issue or allow the OS migration to proceed.

  Replacing the PC or the hardware device may be costly, time-consuming, or impractical, especially if the hardware device is rare, expensive, or customized. Upgrading the BIOS to UEFI may improve the boot speed, security, and compatibility of the PC, but it does not guarantee that the application or the hardware device will work with the new OS.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1

  The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2.

  How to Run Old Programs on Windows 10 - MakeUseOf3.

  How to Run Windows 10 in a Virtual Machine - PCMag4

• Question 246:

  A user connects a company-issued laptop to a 4K TV but can only get 1080p resolution on the TV. The technician confirms that the laptop is capable of producing a 4K output.

  Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

  A. The TV firmware is out of date
  B. The HDMI cable version is incorrect
  C. The laptop firmware is not current
  D. The CPU cannot keep up with the transcoding
  B. The HDMI cable version is incorrect

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  Explanation

  An older HDMI cable version may not support 4K resolution. For 4K output, both the device and the cable must support HDMI 2.0 or higher.

  From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 -Display troubleshooting:

  "Ensure the correct version of HDMI cable is used for high-resolution outputs like 4K. Older cables may be limited to 1080p."

  Verified Source:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Display and Video CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

• Question 247:

  Which of the following RAM characteristics allows for recovery from data faults in memory modules?

  A. Capacity
  B. Speed
  C. ECC
  D. DDR
  E. Parity
  C. ECC

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is C. ECC (Error-Correcting Code).

  In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware objectives, RAM types and features include technologies designed to improve reliability and data integrity.

  ECC memory is specifically designed to detect and correct data errors (faults) in memory automatically. It uses additional bits to store error-checking information, allowing the system to:

  Detect single-bit and some multi-bit errors

  Automatically correct errors without system interruption

  Improve system stability, especially in servers and critical systems.

  This makes ECC the best choice for recovering from data faults. Why the other options are incorrect:

  A. Capacity Capacity refers to how much data the RAM can hold (e.g., 8GB, 16GB). It has nothing to do with error detection or correction.

  B. Speed Speed (measured in MHz or MT/s) affects performance but does not provide any fault recovery capability.

  D. DDR DDR (Double Data Rate) refers to the generation/type of RAM (e.g., DDR3, DDR4, DDR5). It improves performance but does not handle errors.

  E. Parity Parity memory can detect errors but cannot correct them. Since the question specifically asks for recovery from faults, ECC is the correct answer because it both detects and corrects errors. Final Answer:

  C. ECC

• Question 248:

  A user reports issues with a smartphone after dropping it. The icons on the screen all look normal, but when the user touches the email icon, for example, nothing happens.

  Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

  A. Digitizer issues
  B. Overheating
  C. Broken screen
  D. Malware
  A. Digitizer issues

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  Explanation

  Dropping a smartphone can damage the digitizer, which is the component responsible for sensing touch input. This can cause issues with tapping and swiping on the screen, as well as other touchscreen-related issues.

  References:

  CompTIA

  A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 3.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot mobile device issues

• Question 249:

  Which of the following networking devices will most likely need to be installed in between the ISP running DOCSIS and the LAN in a SOHO environment?

  A. Switch
  B. Firewall
  C. Cable modem
  D. Router
  E. Access point
  C. Cable modem

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  Explanation

  To determine the correct device, we need to understand how a DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) network functions in a Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) environment:

  Option C:

  Cable Modem:

  A cable modem is required to convert the signal provided by the ISP (Internet Service Provider) over a DOCSIS network into a format that is usable by the local area network (LAN).

  DOCSIS is a standard for high-speed internet over cable television infrastructure, and the cable modem acts as the gateway between the ISP's coaxial network and the LAN. Without the cable modem, devices in the LAN would not be able to access the internet.

  Incorrect Options:

  Option A:

  Switch:

  A switch is used to connect multiple devices within the LAN. It does not connect the LAN to the ISP's DOCSIS network.

  Option B:

  Firewall:

  While firewalls provide security by managing inbound and outbound traffic, they do not serve as the interface between the ISP and LAN.

  Option D:

  Router:

  A router directs traffic between different networks (e.g., between a LAN and the internet). However, in a DOCSIS network, the cable modem is the device that first connects to the ISP. Many modern cable modems also include built-in routers, but the modem is the primary device needed.

  Option E:

  Access Point:

  An access point provides wireless connectivity within the LAN. It does not connect directly to the ISP or handle DOCSIS signals.

  Key Takeaway:The correct device required to interface between the ISP's DOCSIS network and the SOHO LAN is the cable modem.

• Question 250:

  A company rolls out a mandatory OS update to all PCs. A legacy application that one department uses does not function on the new OS and is EOL.

  Which of the following should a technician suggest to solve the issue with minimal data loss, expense, and disruption to the users?

  A. Setting up a bare-metal hypervisor to isolate the outdated OS
  B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor
  C. Upgrading to an alternative product and importing the data
  D. Uploading the database to a private cloud
  B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor.

  In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives, virtualization is a key concept for maintaining compatibility with legacy systems. A Type 2 hypervisor (hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an existing operating system and allows users to run a virtual machine (VM) with an older OS.

  This solution is ideal because:

  It allows the legacy application to run in its required OS environment.

  It avoids replacing the application (which could cause data loss or compatibility issues).

  It is cost-effective, as it uses existing hardware.

  It minimizes user disruption, since users can continue using the application within a VM.

  Why the other options are incorrect:

  A. Setting up a bare-metal hypervisor A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor is more complex, costly, and disruptive. It typically requires dedicating hardware and is not ideal for a single department use case.

  C. Upgrading to an alternative product and importing the data Although this may be a long-term solution, it involves higher cost, potential data loss, retraining, and disruption.

  D. Uploading the database to a private cloud This does not solve the compatibility issue of the legacy application with the new OS. Final Answer:

  B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor