Oracle 1Z0-574 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Oracle 1Z0-574 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 61:

  

  The sequence diagram (attached) maps to the Model-View Controller (MVC) development pattern. Which statement best describes how the sequence diagram maps to the MVC development pattern?

  A. The three process blocks (or tiers) represented in the sequence diagram map from left to right to Controller, View, Model.
  B. The three process blocks (or tiers) represented in the sequence diagram map from left to right to View, Controller, Model.
  C. The Controller and View appear in the first process block (starting from the left of the diagram) while the Model spans the next two blocks (incorporating service Invocation and database).
  D. The sequence diagram does not map to MVC.
  C. The Controller and View appear in the first process block (starting from the left of the diagram) while the Model spans the next two blocks (incorporating service Invocation and database).

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  The controller receives input from the user and makes the corresponding calls on model elements. The response to the user input is displayed via the view elements. A single user input may result in changes to none, one, or many view elements.

  The view renders data from the model into a suitable interface element. Multiple different views may exist for a single model element. Each view element is designed to support a particular end user need; whereas the model elements are shared by all users of the system.

  The model manages the behavior and data for the system. The model responds to requests for information about its state from the view, and responds to instructions from the controller to change state or execute behavior. The model may also notify the view when information changes so that the view can update the effected interface elements.

• Question 62:

  What best describes the best practice deployment of Metadata Repository?

  A. Every project should deploy its own dedicated Metadata Repository to ensure that the project assets are properly organized.
  B. The Metadata Repository is deployed as a single enterprise-scoped cluster to promote a single view of the enterprise.
  C. A sandbox Metadata Repository for training and testing purposes should not be deployed.
  D. The Source Code Management (SCM) server doubles as a Metadata Repository.
  A. Every project should deploy its own dedicated Metadata Repository to ensure that the project assets are properly organized.

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  A metadata repository is used as a common repository for managing metadata of different applications. Many applications use the MDS repository to manage their metadata. Each deployed application uses a logical partition in metadata repository. This logical partition also helps in maintaining the metadata lifecycle. Before deploying a application, you create a partition for it in MDS repository. This command creates a partition with the given name in the specified repository.

  Note: The Metadata repository provides a centralized holding area for a great deal of SOA related information that will be utilized at design time to construct additional services and applications. The repository also provides the primary means for service discovery. In many ways, the service repository can be utilized as the center point for service oriented design.

• Question 63:

  Which of the following environments are typically clustered?

  A. Development Environment
  B. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) Environment
  C. Staging Environment
  D. Nonfunctional Testing Environment
  B. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) Environment

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  UAT (also known as beta testing) : Formal testing with respect to user needs, requirements, and business processes conducted to determine whether or not a system satisfies the acceptance criteria and to enable the user, customers or other

  authorized entity to determine whether or not to accept the system.

  Incorrect answer:

  The staging tier is a environment that is as identical to the production environment as possible. The purpose of the Staging environment is to simulate as much of the Production environment as possible. The Staging environment can also

  double as a Demonstration/Training environment.

• Question 64:

  Which of the following are phases of Service Management?

  A. Monitor
  B. Define
  C. Analyze
  D. Report
  E. Enforce and Execute
  A. Monitor
  B. Define
  D. Report
  E. Enforce and Execute

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  There are four Service Management Phases:

  *

  Define

  *

  Enforce and execute

  *

  Monitor

  *

  Report

• Question 65:

  ORA defines the concept of Data Grid. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of Data Grid?

  A. A Data Grid is a cluster of databases providing scalability and high availability.
  B. A Data Grid is a system composed of multiple servers that work together to manage Information and related operations such as computations in a distributed environment.
  C. A Data Grid is used for data mirroring and data replication.
  D. A Data Grid is a tool used to perform ETL (Extract-Transform-Load).
  B. A Data Grid is a system composed of multiple servers that work together to manage Information and related operations such as computations in a distributed environment.

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  A Data Grid is a system composed of multiple servers that work together to manage information and related operations such as computations in a distributed environment.

  Note: An In-Memory Data Grid is a Data Grid that stores the information in memory to achieve very high performance, and uses redundancy by keeping copies of that information synchronized across multiple servers to ensure the resiliency of the system and the availability of the data in the event of server failure.

• Question 66:

  Which statements are correct for service versioning within Service-Oriented Integration?

  A. Only one production version of each SOA Service should be allowed. Multiple versions cause service sprawl.
  B. Service consumers should be allowed to migrate to new versions of SOA Services over time as part of regular maintenance.
  C. Service consumers should be automatically migrated to new versions of SOA Services by using the mediation layer to perform any necessary translations or transformations.
  D. At most two versions of an SOA Service are allowed in production, one current and one that's deprecated.
  E. The architecture must support multiple, concurrent production versions of SOA Services.
  B. Service consumers should be allowed to migrate to new versions of SOA Services over time as part of regular maintenance.
  E. The architecture must support multiple, concurrent production versions of SOA Services.

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  B (not C): Service consumers are able to migrate to a newer version of a SOA Service gracefully. Service consumers should migrate to a new version of a SOA Service as part of a normal maintenance process.

  The

  coordinated deployment of service consumers and service providers should not be necessary.

  Implications:

  *

  A service migration strategy needs to be established.

  *

  The architecture must support graceful service migration.

  E(not A, not D):There may be multiple versions of a SOA Service in production concurrently. Invariably a SOA Service will require modifications to support new consumers or to expand functionality. Supporting concurrent versions of a SOA

  Service is essential for a sound service versioning approach.

  Implications:

  *

  A service versioning strategy needs to be established.

  *

  The architecture must support multiple, concurrent versions of a SOA Service.

• Question 67:

  Which of the following statements are true about asymmetric key encryption?

  A. It uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, that are unique and mathematically linked.
  B. It uses one key that is shared by both parties in the data exchange.
  C. It is faster than symmetric key encryption.
  D. It can be used in conjunction with symmetric key encryption in order to securely share a common encryption key.
  E. It can be used to produce and verify digital signatures.
  A. It uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, that are unique and mathematically linked.
  D. It can be used in conjunction with symmetric key encryption in order to securely share a common encryption key.

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  A:Public (asymmetric) key encryption uses a pair of keys, one private and one public. The public key is freely distributed to any party that may wish to send encrypted data. Once encrypted, data can only be decrypted with the private key. Therefore the private key is maintained by the receiving party and is not shared with anyone else. The two keys are mathematically related, but can't be used to discover each other.

  D: A combination of symmetric and asymmetric encryption is often used.

• Question 68:

  You are working with an IT department that has embraced Service-Oriented Integration (SOI). The development team has created a catalog of services that rigidly follow the layering of the SOI architecture as illustrated by the Logical View. Clients are allowed to call only Business Process Services, Business Process Services only call Business Services, Business Services only call Data Services, and so on, with each call going through the Mediation Layer. Unfortunately, the quality assurance team has discovered during user acceptance testing that the latency of applications the Business Process Services is unacceptable.

  What advice would you give the development team to help reduce the latency without sacrificing adherence to the SOI architecture?

  A. Change the SOA Services to bypass the Mediation Layer when calling other SOA Services. The Mediation Layer should be used only between the clients and the SOA Services. The Mediation Layer should not be used between SOA Services.
  B. The developers are accurately following the SOI architecture. Reducing the latency will require that some of the SOI architecture concepts be relaxed or violated.
  C. Remove all data transformation from the Mediation Layer because data transformations are too computationally expensive, where required, change the interface of the SOA Services to use a single data model so that data transformations are not needed.
  D. Allow clients and SOA Services to use large-granularity operations. Each operation on the Business Process Service should return an entire data entity or multiple data entities. This reduces the number of client calls required and, therefore, the overall latency.
  D. Allow clients and SOA Services to use large-granularity operations. Each operation on the Business Process Service should return an entire data entity or multiple data entities. This reduces the number of client calls required and, therefore, the overall latency.

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  Reducing the number of calls could reduce latency.

  Note: The Mediation Layer provides loose coupling for the entire architecture. It decouples the layers of the architecture as well as decoupling external users of the layers from the specific layers in the architecture. The primary purpose of this layer in the architecture is to facilitate communication between layers in the architecture and between this architecture and the systems that connect to this architecture. This layer is infrastructure in the truest sense and therefore rarely maps directly to business requirements. However, this layer provides key capabilities that make the architecture service oriented and is the primary focus for meeting non-functional requirements such as scalability, reliability, availability, maintainability, etc.

• Question 69:

  Which of the following are the three major tiers of the Logical view of the Oracle Management Reference Architecture?

  A. Administrative Tier
  B. Client Tier
  C. Management Tier
  D. Managed Services Tier
  E. Managed Target Tier
  B. Client Tier
  C. Management Tier
  E. Managed Target Tier

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  The Client Tier represents access to management content and operations as well as end users accessing the appropriate business solution. Administrators utilize a browser based console to perform their management tasks using a standard browser interface. The management console which is lightweight, easy to access and firewall friendly, enables administrators to centrally manage their entire environment.

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  The Management Tier renders the content and interface for the management console that gives access to management operations such as monitoring, administration, configuration, central policy setting, and security. The Management Tier controls the accessing and uploading of management information.

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  The Managed Target Tier contains the named infrastructure components that are required to be managed and monitored. It is common to utilize a combination of agent based and gateway (a.k.a. proxy) patterns to monitor and manage hosted and non-hosted targets.

  

• Question 70:

  What does access to Consolidated Information in Complex Distributed Environments require?

  A. siloedIT management and monitoring tools such as event managers and network managers.
  B. architects and engineers to reverse engineer applications to determine dependencies across components
  C. Access to information concerning dynamicinterdependences acrossinfrastructurecomments.
  D. Following for diagnosing and correlating problems in complex, distributed environments.
  E. a strong bottom-up approach to IT management to focus on the status of individual low-level Infrastructure components
  C. Access to information concerning dynamicinterdependences acrossinfrastructurecomments.

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  Infrastructure components have become more dependent on one another, with many of these interdependencies crossing corporate boundaries. Without access to information concerning these dynamic interdependencies, diagnosing and correlating problems in a complex, distributed environment is a huge challenge.