Oracle 1Z0-574 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Oracle 1Z0-574 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 141:

  Which of the following statements are true with regard to the Service Contract as defined by the Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)?

  A. A Service Contract defines the contract between a service consumer and a service provider.
  B. A Service Contract defines the functional and nonfunctional capabilities of the SOA ServiceiIn human- readable terms.
  C. The Web Services Description Language (WSDL) defines the Service Contract for a Web Service.
  D. A Service Contract defines the totality of what the SOA Service provides, independent of individual service consumers.
  E. A Service Contract Is an optional part of an SOA Service, providing human-readable documentation of the SOA Service.
  B. A Service Contract defines the functional and nonfunctional capabilities of the SOA ServiceiIn human- readable terms.

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  SOA Services include a contract that specifies the functional and non-functional capabilities provided.

  In order to support business-level composition, the SOA Service must have a contract that is understandable to a business person.

• Question 142:

  Which of the following statements are true?

  A. (OWCS) provides components for reverse proxy, personalization, customization, social computing, and analytics.
  B. Oracle WebCenter (OWC) provides the Resource Tier of the Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction.
  C. Oracle HTTP Server (OHS) provides the standard communication protocols (for example, HTTP) between the Client Tier and the Service Tier as well as the Message Security between the Client Tier and Service Tier.
  D. Oracle Meta Data Services (OMDS) stores customization, personalization, and other metadata in a repository
  E. Oracle WebLogic Suite (OWLS) is used in Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction to enable Ontology languages for the Semantic Web
  B. Oracle WebCenter (OWC) provides the Resource Tier of the Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction.
  D. Oracle Meta Data Services (OMDS) stores customization, personalization, and other metadata in a repository

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  B: Oracle WebCenter (OWC) - provides the foundation for delivering a modern user experience for Oracle Fusion Middleware as well as Oracle Fusion Applications. OWC is composed of four main components as illustrated in the figure:

  

  D: Oracle Meta Data Services (OMDS) - stores customization, personalization, and other metadata in a repository. The repository can either be stored in a database or in file-based storage.

• Question 143:

  Which of the following statements are true about applying security to SOA Services?

  A. SOA Services must base access control decisions on roles, attributes, rules, and so on, that are universal to all consumers.
  B. SOA Services are difficult to secure due to a lack of security standards for Web Services.
  C. SOA Services are a type of monolithic application with self-contained identity and role management.
  D. Data returned by a SOA Service may need to be redacted according to data classification schemes, depending on the privileges of users.
  A. SOA Services must base access control decisions on roles, attributes, rules, and so on, that are universal to all consumers.
  D. Data returned by a SOA Service may need to be redacted according to data classification schemes, depending on the privileges of users.

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  A: In terms of access control, SOA Services must base access control decisions on roles, attributes, rules, etc. that are universal to all consumers.

  D: data provided by a SOA Service must adhere to data classification restrictions that might differ between consumers. For instance, the same query service may need to redact various rows or columns of data based on restrictions assigned to classes of consumers.

• Question 144:

  Which are the major categories of ORA Engineering capabilities?

  A. Integrated Development
  B. Asset Management
  C. Event Processing
  D. Service Engineering
  A. Integrated Development
  B. Asset Management

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  The broad categories that define ORA Engineering are:

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  Integrated development

  This covers a wide range of engineering capabilities required to model, design and build solutions. These capabilities go beyond simple editing and include advanced capabilities to support round-trip engineering, integrated testing,

  deployment, and asset management.

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  Asset Management

  Asset Management deals with the visibility, management and governance of assets and asset metadata. It covers the capabilities required to effectively manage enterprise assets.

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  Quality Management

  Quality Management capabilities ensure that the developed solution meets the enterprise standards and pass the exit criteria. Quality Management covers testing, defect management, and continuous integration.

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  Deployment Management

  Deployment Management deals with building, packaging, migration, and deployment of assets.

  

• Question 145:

  There are a number of ways to classify applications in order to assess business risks and assign appropriate security policies. Which of the following is not described as a primary means to classify an application?

  A. by the user community it serves, such as HR, finance, all employees, general public, and so on
  B. by the information it handles, such as classified information, personal information, publicly availableinformation, and so on
  C. by business criticality, such as revenue-generating applications versus informational applications
  D. by technology and/or vendor, such as .NET versus Java, and so on
  E. by the applicability of existing laws and regulations pertaining to privacy, auditing, and access control
  D. by technology and/or vendor, such as .NET versus Java, and so on

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  Applications can be classified in a number of ways, such as:

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  By the user community it serves, such as HR, Finance, company executives, all employees, all persons working on behalf of the company (includes contractors and temporary workers), general public, etc. (not A)

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  Based on information confidentiality. Some applications process personal information while others do not. Likewise, in military terms, an application might be targeted towards individuals with a specific level of clearance. (not B)

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  Based on business criticality. Some applications may have a direct and severe contribution or impact to revenue. Examples include order processing, credit card processing, call processing, securities trading, and travel reservations. Others may have little or no impact. (not C)

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  Based on the applicability of existing laws and regulations. For example, HIPPA puts more security emphasis on patient records than would otherwise exist. (not E)

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  Based on network exposure. Levels might include: locked down (no network access), secure production environment access, general organization-wide intranet access, partner access, Internet access limited to a specific user community, and Internet access open to the public.

• Question 146:

  Which statements are correct with regard to the layers in the Logical View of Service-Oriented Integration (SOI)?

  A. Upper layers in the architecture leverage capabilities provided by lower layers.
  B. Upper layers are allowed to access capabilities in any lower layer.
  C. Upper layers are allowed to access capabilities only in the next lower layer.
  D. Each layer encapsulates specific capabilities required by the entire architecture.
  E. Each layer encapsulates optional capabilities of the architecture; thus any layer can be omitted from the architecture.
  F. The layers are used to partition the capabilities of the architecture, but otherwise have no architectural significance.
  A. Upper layers in the architecture leverage capabilities provided by lower layers.
  C. Upper layers are allowed to access capabilities only in the next lower layer.
  D. Each layer encapsulates specific capabilities required by the entire architecture.

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  Each layer encapsulates specific capabilities for the overall architecture. Upper layers in the architecture leverage the capabilities provided by the lower layers. Generally, upper layers call lower layers in the architecture and the reverse (i.e. lower levels calling upper layers) is prohibited.

  

• Question 147:

  Select the two layers of ORA application infrastructure from the following list:

  A. Application
  B. Platform
  C. Abstraction
  D. Computing Foundation
  A. Application
  B. Platform

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  The ORA Application infrastructure covers the following layers:

  *Platform

  * *Virtualization

  **Containers:

  * Computing Foundation ** Distributed Computing:

  **Grid Computing ** Caching

  

• Question 148:

  Which statement best describes the mapping of User Interaction logical architecture layers to deployment tiers?

  A. The web tier and the application tier together map to the service layer, while the dates tier is an example of the resource layer component.
  B. The web tier and the application tier together map to the client layer, while the data tier is an example of the resource layer component.
  C. The web tier fulfills the majority of the client layer capabilities; the application tier maps to the service layer; the data tier is an example of the resource layer component.
  D. The Logical view and Deployment view of the User Interaction architecture do not map effectively from one to the other because other intermediate views are needed.
  D. The Logical view and Deployment view of the User Interaction architecture do not map effectively from one to the other because other intermediate views are needed.

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  Note: There are a myriad of ways that the architecture can be deployed within an enterprise. The types and number of physical servers is determined based on company preferences and expected computational load. The actual products that are used to realize the architecture may also have significant impact on the deployment choices.

• Question 149:

  AAPML and CARML are part of what standards effort?

  A. WS-Security
  B. Web Services Interoperability
  C. JCA and JAAS
  D. Identity Governance Framework
  D. Identity Governance Framework

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  Identity Governance Framework (IGF) consists of:

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  An identity attribute service that supports access to many different sources of PII and enforces administrative policy.

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  Client Attribute Requirements Markup Language (CARML): declarative syntax used by clients to specify their requirements for PII.

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  Attribute Authority Policy Markup Language (AAPML): declarative syntax which enables providers of identity-related data to express policy on the usage of information.

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  A multi-language API (Java, .NET, Perl) for reading and writing identity-related attributes.

• Question 150:

  Which statement best describes the relationship between Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) and the Oracle products?

  A. ORA describes the architecture built in to the Oracle products.
  B. ORA describes the architecture underlying the Oracle Fusion Applications.
  C. ORA describes a product-agnostic architecture and then maps the Oracle products onto the architecture.
  D. ORA describes an architecture thatis exclusively based on Oracle products.
  C. ORA describes a product-agnostic architecture and then maps the Oracle products onto the architecture.

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  The Oracle Reference Architecture is Applicable to heterogeneous environments. It is independent of specific products or version.