CheckPoint 156-315.80 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CheckPoint 156-315.80 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 91:

  What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

  A. CCP and 18190
  B. CCP and 257
  C. CCP and 8116
  D. CPC and 8116
  C. CCP and 8116

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  Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/index.html

• Question 92:

  With Mobile Access enabled, administrators select the web-based and native applications that can be accessed by remote users and define the actions that users can perform the applications. Mobile Access encrypts all traffic using:

  A. HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.
  B. HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.
  C. HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, no additional software is required.
  D. HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, no additional software is required.
  A. HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

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  Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Mobile_Access_WebAdmin/23024.htm

• Question 93:

  Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R80 Identity Awareness Web API?

  A. SOAP
  B. REST
  C. XLANG
  D. XML-RPC
  B. REST

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  The Identity Web API uses the REST protocol over SSL. The requests and responses are HTTP and in JSON format.

  Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/ CP_R80.10_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/148699

• Question 94:

  You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores.

  How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

  A. 3
  B. 2
  C. 1
  D. 4
  D. 4

• Question 95:

  What is the base level encryption key used by Capsule Docs?

  A. RSA 2048
  B. RSA 1024
  C. SHA-256
  D. AES
  A. RSA 2048

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  Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk103706

• Question 96:

  In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

  A. SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections
  B. SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets
  C. SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances
  D. SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets
  C. SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

• Question 97:

  Return oriented programming (ROP) exploits are detected by which security blade?

  A. Check Point Anti-Virus / Threat Emulation
  B. Intrusion Prevention Software
  C. Application control
  D. Data Loss Prevention
  A. Check Point Anti-Virus / Threat Emulation

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  Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/customer-stories/se2/

• Question 98:

  You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the tight protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor.

  Which Check Point product protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?

  A. IPS AND Application Control
  B. IPS, anti-virus and anti-bot
  C. IPS, anti-virus and e-mail security
  D. SandBlast
  D. SandBlast

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  Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products-solutions/zero-day-protection/

• Question 99:

  Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

  A. cpinfo
  B. migrate export
  C. sysinfo
  D. cpview
  A. cpinfo

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  CPInfo is an auto-updatable utility that collects diagnostics data on a customer's machine at the time of execution and uploads it to Check Point servers (it replaces the standalone cp_uploader utility for uploading files to Check Point servers). The CPInfo output file allows analyzing customer setups from a remote location. Check Point support engineers can open the CPInfo file in a demo mode, while viewing actual customer Security Policies and Objects. This allows the in-depth analysis of customer's configuration and environment settings.

  Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk92739

• Question 100:

  What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

  A. Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.
  B. Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.
  C. Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.
  D. Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.
  B. Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.