Which feature in R77 permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period?
A. Suspicious Activity Monitoring
B. HTTP Methods
C. Local Interface Spoofing
D. Block Port Overflow
MyCorp has the following NAT rules. You need to disable the NAT function when Alpha-internal networks try to reach the Google DNS (8.8.8.8) server. What can you do in this case?
A. Use manual NAT rule to make an exception
B. Use the NAT settings in the Global Properties
C. Disable NAT inside the VPN community
D. Use network exception in the Alpha-internal network object
What is the potential downside or drawback to choosing the Standalone deployment option instead of the Distributed deployment option?
A. degrades performance as the Security Policy grows in size
B. requires additional Check Point appliances
C. requires additional software subscription
D. increases cost
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point production information, and configuration settings of a GAiA Security Gateway.
B. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS
C. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway
D. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server
The Captive Portal tool:
A. Acquires identities from unidentified users.
B. Is only used for guest user authentication.
C. Allows access to users already identified.
D. Is deployed from the Identity Awareness page in the Global Properties settings.
Where do we need to reset the SIC on a gateway object?
A. SmartDashboard > Edit Gateway Object > General Properties > Communication
B. SmartUpdate > Edit Security Management Server Object > SIC
C. SmartUpdate > Edit Gateway Object > Communication
D. SmartDashboard > Edit Security Management Server Object > SIC
Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?
A. Security Gateway
B. Host
C. Security Management object
D. Network
What happens if the identity of a user is known?
A. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.
B. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.
C. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.
D. If the user credentials match an Access Role, the rule is applied and traffic is accepted or dropped based on the defined action.
Message digests use which of the following?
A. DES and RC4
B. IDEA and RC4
C. SSL and MD4
D. SHA-1 and MD5
When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:
A. Requires client and server side software.
B. Prompts the user to enter credentials.
C. Requires administrators to specifically allow LDAP traffic to and from the LDAP Server and the Security Gateway.
D. Is transparent, requiring no client or server side software, or client intervention.
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