Q51
Single choice
A 45-year-old man presents to the physician's office for evaluation of a skin lesion on his abdomen. He states that the lesion has been present for 1 year, but has recently enlarged over the last 2 months. The mass is nontender, and he is otherwise asymptomatic. Past history is unremarkable. Examination reveals a 3-cm, pigmented, irregular skin lesion located in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen, as shown in Figure. Heart, lung, and abdominal examination are normal.
There are no palpable cervical, axillary, or inguinal lymph nodes. Chest x-ray and liver function tests are normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
