Q24
Single choice
A 44-year-old woman had a normal Pap smear 3 years ago. Her menstrual periods occur monthly and last 5 days. She has had intermenstrual and postcoital spotting intermittently for the past 6 months. The pelvic examination is normal. All tests performed on the woman were normal. She returns 1 year later for her annual gynecologic examination. On speculum examination, she has a visible 7-mm lesion on her cervix that bleeds on contact.
Which of the following is the most appropriate procedure to perform?