Skip to main content

USMLE-STEP-2 Real Exam Questions

United States Medical Licensing Step 2

738 questions available · Page 1 of 74

Updated Exam DumpsVerified AnswersPass Guarantee

Get Complete Exam Dumps
Question 1 Single choice

A 25-year-old male graduate student presents at a university hospital emergency department complaining of a sudden onset of a pounding in his chest, a feeling of choking, and shortness of breath. He reports that things somehow suddenly seem unreal, and he is afraid he is dying of a heart attack.
An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm and no abnormalities If this patient continues to experience similar episodes over the next 2 months, with substantial apprehension about the episodes, which of the following drugs would be most appropriate for the treatment of this patient's condition?

  1. A

    paroxetine

  2. B

    buspirone

  3. C

    ziprasidone

  4. D

    propranolol

  5. E

    haloperidol

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

Explanation

If the patient continues to suffer panic attacks for a substantial period, he is said to be suffering from panic disorder. SSRIs, such as paroxetine, are frequently effective and generally safe drugs for the treatment of panic disorder. Despite its usefulness in treating generalized anxiety disorder, buspirone seems to be ineffective in treating panic. Beta-blockers such as propranolol may block symptoms of palpitations or tremor, but are generally not as effective against panic attacks as are SSRIs. Antipsychotic medications such as ziprasidone and haloperidol are not appropriate medications for the first-line treatment of uncomplicated panic disorder.

Question 2 Single choice

A5-year-old pedestrian is hit by a car in a mall parking lot and he is brought to the emergency department. There was loss of consciousness for less than 1 minute. On evaluation, the child has no neurologic deficits and a CT scan of the head reveals no intracranial abnormalities and no obvious skull fractures. The parents want to know what possible long-term problems there might be.
You remember that problems after head trauma may include the development of seizures and that the risk of developing posttraumatic epilepsy is increased by which of the following?

  1. A

    a brief loss of consciousness

  2. B

    an acute intracranial hemorrhage

  3. C

    retrograde amnesia

  4. D

    posttraumatic vomiting

  5. E

    a small linear skull fracture

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

Explanation

Late posttraumatic epilepsy is diagnosed when a seizure occurs for the first time more than 1 week after a head injury. Factors that correlate with an increased risk of developing posttraumatic epilepsy include presence of a depressed skull fracture, acute intracranial hemorrhage, cerebral contusion, or unconsciousness lasting more than 24 hours. Because the risk of a subsequent seizure is approximately 75%, acute and chronic treatment with anticonvulsants is indicated. Loss of consciousness, retrograde amnesia, and vomiting are relatively common immediate consequences of head trauma. They are usually transient and are not highly correlated with a risk of subsequent posttraumatic seizures.

Question 3 Single choice

A55-year-old man with a 50 pack-year history of smoking presents with hemoptysis. CXR shows a left upper lobe mass and laboratory evaluation reveals hypercalcemia.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A

    small cell lung cancer

  2. B

    tuberculosis

  3. C

    squamous cell lung cancer

  4. D

    adenocarcinoma of the lung

  5. E

    metastatic testicular cancer

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Explanation

Although 515% of patients with lung cancer are identified while they are asymptomatic, most patients present with signs and symptoms including cough, hemoptysis, wheeze, stridor, shortness of breath, and postobstructive pneumonia.
Paraneoplastic syndromes are common among patients with lung cancer. Endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes are seen in 12% of patients. Hypercalcemia may result from ectopic production of PTH or PTH-related peptides by squamous cell carcinomas. Small cell cancers may secrete ACTH or excessive amounts of ADH leading to hyponatremia and SIADH. Other nonendocrine paraneoplastic manifestations may include anorexia, cachexia, weight loss, fever, suppressed immunity. peripheral neuropathy, and the myasthenic Eaton-Lambert syndrome.

Question 4 Single choice

For each newborn with vomiting and illustrated radiographs, select the most likely diagnosis. A1-day-old infant with Down syndrome, feeding intolerance, bilious vomiting, and a double bubble on plain radiographs

  1. A

    congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

  2. B

    annular pancreas

  3. C

    duodenal atresia

  4. D

    midgut volvulus

  5. E

    intussusception

  6. F

    imperforate anus

  7. G

    Meckel's diverticulum

  8. H

    meconium ileus

  9. I

    Hirschsprung's disease

  10. J

    jejunal atresia

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Explanation

Pyloric stenosis presents with nonbilious vomiting and gastric distention. An annular pancreas does not result in obstruction, except when it is associated with an underlying duodenal abnormality. Duodenal atresia is associated with Down syndrome. It results in early onset of bilious vomiting from complete duodenal obstruction distal to the ampulla. There is a "double bubble" sign on plain abdominal radiographs from air in the stomach and proximal duodenum. Midgut volvulus is a life-threatening complication of malrotation. It presents with acute onset of bilious vomiting, usually in infants in the first year of life. There is a paucity of gas on plain radiographs, with evidence of duodenal obstruction. UGI contrast study will confirm the abnormal position of the duodenaljejunal junction and may demonstrate a corkscrew of the duodenum from volvulus. Intussusception is uncommon in newborns. Bilious vomiting is unusual at the outset, but may develop if the intussusception has been present for a significant time. Imperforate anus can be excluded by clinical examination.

If unrecognized, the infant will develop a clinical picture of a distal bowel obstruction, with dilated small and large bowel. Meckel's diverticulum can present with obstruction secondary to volvulus around a Meckel's band, with a distal small-bowel obstruction. Contrast enema will demonstrate a normal-caliber decompressed colon, with proximal dilated small bowel. Meconium ileus is associated with cystic fibrosis. Obstruction occurs from inspissated meconium in the terminal ileum. Plain radiographs may demonstrate a "soap bubble" pattern in the right lower quadrant, with a decompressed colon on contrast enema. Hirsch-sprung's disease presents with a distal bowel obstruction and delayed passage of meconium. A contrast enema may demonstrate a transition zone, with a narrow distal aganglionic segment, and proximal colonic dilatation. Jejunal atresia is a result of an intrauterine vascular accident. Infants present with bile-stained vomiting and abdominal distention early after birth. The colon is unused, and characteristically, on contrast enema, it is abnormally small in caliber

Question 5 Single choice

A 65-year-old diabetic man presents to the emergency department with a history of a penetrating wound to his buttock by a wooden stump while working in his garden 24 hours earlier. On examination, he is febrile, the tissue around the wound is violaceous in color, and several bullae and crepitus are noted in the buttock. The drainage from the wound is foul smelling, watery, and grayish in appearance.

The optimal treatment for this patient would include which of the following?

  1. A

    high-dose IV penicillin G and broadspectrum antibiotics

  2. B

    high-dose IV penicillin G, broadspectrum antibiotics, and local wound care with unroofing of bullae and culture of wound drainage

  3. C

    high-dose IV penicillin G, broadspectrum antibiotics, with surgical debridement only if and when there is no improvement with antibiotics

  4. D

    radical surgical debridement

  5. E

    high-dose IV penicillin G, broadspectrum antibiotics, radical surgical debridement, and hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: E

Explanation

This patient presents with a rapidly progressive, necrotizing soft-tissue infection. The skin edema, purple hue, bullae, water drainage, and crepitus are classic findings in clostridial infections. Although culture of the wound drainage may be confirmatory, the diagnosis should be suspected on a clinical basis. Antibiotics alone are insufficient therapy. The mainstay of therapy is radical surgical debridement of devitalized tissues, in conjunction with high-dose IV antibiotics.
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy may facilitate recovery.

Question 6 Single choice

A 25-year-old woman has a positive cervical culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. She has had at least two positive cultures for gonorrhea treated in the past. She is afebrile and has no symptoms. The incidence of penicillin-resistant gonorrhea in some areas of the United States is currently as great as 10%.
Because of this, the recommended treatment for gonorrhea includes which of the following?

  1. A

    125 mg intramuscular ceftriaxone as a single dose

  2. B

    1 g spectinomycin

  3. C

    2 g ampicillin orally as a single dose

  4. D

    2 g intramuscular cefoxitin

  5. E

    2 g metronidazole as a single dose

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

Explanation

The current treatment guideline from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for uncomplicated gonococcal infections is ceftriaxone 125 mg IM one time. Cefixime 400 mg orally is an alternative. Each is given as a single dose.
Importantly, the quinolone class, for example, ciprofloxacin is no longer considered appropriate treatment for gonococcal infections due to drug resistance. To the chosen drug is added azithromycin, 1 g orally, or doxycycline, 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days. The second drug is added to treat C. trachomatis, which is present in almost 50% of women with gonorrhea. Sexual partners should be treated at the same time

Question 7 Single choice

A 13-year-old boy presents for evaluation of short stature. His growth chart from ages 2 through 12 years is shown in Figure. His growth in the first 2 years of life was typically at the 25th percentile. He has been healthy, has a good appetite, and is doing well in school. He lives with his parents and is an only child. His parents' heights are both at the 50th percentile. His father states that he grew several inches after he completed high school. A complete physical examination is normal.

His Tanner stage is I Which of the following tests is the most appropriate next step in the care of this patient?

  1. A

    bone age

  2. B

    cranial imaging

  3. C

    growth hormone stimulation

  4. D

    thyroid function tests

  5. E

    no tests are necessary

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: E

Explanation

Given that this is a classic case of constitutional growth delay, no diagnostic studies are indicated. Close monitoring of growth would be indicated. A bone age, if performed, would be less than chronologic age, demonstrating the growth potential for the patient. Cranial imaging would be indicated if the patient had evidence for onset of secondary hypopituitarism

Question 8 Single choice

Match the antidepressant with the side effect or characteristic that need to avoid tyramine with this medication

  1. A

    phenelzine

  2. B

    venlafaxine

  3. C

    trazodone

  4. D

    fluoxetine

  5. E

    mirtazapine

  6. F

    nortriptyline

  7. G

    escitalopram

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

Explanation

Fluoxetine has the longest half-life of the current SSRIs (escitalopram's half-life is shorter--less than 24 hours), phenelzine is an MAOI and foods rich in tyramine can induce a hypertensive crisis. Venlafaxine can induce hypertension, especially at higher doses. Trazodone can rarely induce priapism (a painful sustained erection). Nortriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and at high doses, it can cause arrhythmias.

Question 9 Single choice

A 59-year-old woman had a left modified radical mastectomy for intraductal carcinoma 2 years previously. She presents with confusion, lethargy, and thigh pain. X-rays reveal a lytic lesion in the shaft of the femur.

Which of the following blood abnormalities is most likely?

  1. A

    high glucose

  2. B

    low calcium

  3. C

    high potassium

  4. D

    high calcium

  5. E

    low magnesium

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Explanation

Hypercalcemia is a common complication of malignancy. Mechanisms include bone metastases, humoral secretion (e.g., osteoclast-activating factor), prostaglandin, or ectopic parathormone production and immobilization. Hypercalcemia is often manifested by confusion and lethargy. The other metabolic abnormalities usually are not associated with confusion. Therapy is directed at increasing renal calcium clearance and inhibiting further bone resorption. Saline infusion raises the glomerular filtration rate and decreases calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule. Under life-threatening circumstances, the infusion may need to be aggressive, as much as 6 L of saline daily plus furosemide. Radiotherapy will do nothing for the calcium. Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen used in the treatment of breast carcinoma and other malignancies. When used in the presence of bone metastases, it may contribute to hypercalcemia. Chemotherapy will not decrease the calcium levels. Glucocorticoids have an antitumor effect and reduce tumor production of humoral mediators, but act slowly.

Question 10 Single choice

Afew weeks after a presumed viral respiratory infection, a 4-year-old girl presents with bruising and petechiae. Bone marrow examination reveals increased numbers of megakaryocytes but is otherwise normal. Hb is 13.5 g/100 mL. Platelet count is 30,000/mm3.

Which of the following would be appropriate for this child at this time?

  1. A

    daily prednisone

  2. B

    a transfusion of packed RBCs and platelets

  3. C

    IV gamma globulin

  4. D

    splenectomy

  5. E

    no specific therapy

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: E

Explanation

Most cases of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) in children are preceded by viral infections and, in contrast to adults, the great majority of children recover spontaneously. Although not all patients require therapy, most authorities suggest treating when the platelet count is less than 20,000. Standard treatment has been oral prednisone. Recently, IV gamma globulin has been shown to be effective. However, this agent is expensive and less convenient than oral prednisone. The child described in the question might reasonably be treated with either agent. Because the child's Hb is 13.3 g/100 mL, there is no indication for transfusion of RBCs. Although the platelet count is very low, platelet transfusions are short lived and generally are indicated only in the presence of serious bleeding, as, for example, from the GI tract. Thus, platelet transfusions are not indicated in this patient. Splenectomy is reserved for the very rare child who does not respond to conservative therapy or who develops chronic ITP.