CompTIA CompTIA Certifications SY0-601 Questions & Answers

• Question 191:

  SIMULATION

  A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having issues browsing websites.

  INSTRUCTIONS

  Click on each firewall to do the following:

  1.

  Deny cleartext web traffic.

  2.

  Ensure secure management protocols are used.

  3.

  Resolve issues at the DR site.

  The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.

  If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

  

  Firewall 3

  Hot Area:

  

  Correct Answer:

  

  Firewall 3:

  DNS Rule: ANY ->; ANY ->; DNS ->; PERMIT HTTPS Outbound: 192.168.0.1/24 ->; ANY ->; HTTPS ->; PERMIT Management: ANY ->; ANY ->; SSH ->; PERMIT HTTPS Inbound: ANY ->; ANY ->; HTTPS ->; PERMIT HTTP Inbound: ANY ->; ANY ->; HTTP ->; DENY

  

• Question 192:

  DRAG DROP

  You have been tasked with designing a security plan for your company. Drag and drop the appropriate security controls on the floor plan-Instructions: All objects must be used and all place holders must be filled. Order does not matter. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.

  Select and Place:

  

  Correct Answer:

  

  Cable locks - Adding a cable lock between a laptop and a desk prevents someone from picking it up and walking away

  Proximity badge + reader

  Safe is a hardware/physical security measure

  Mantrap can be used to control access to sensitive areas.

  CCTV can be used as video surveillance.

  Biometric reader can be used to control and prevent unauthorized access.

  Locking cabinets can be used to protect backup media, documentation and other physical artefacts.

  References:

  Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p. 369

• Question 193:

  DRAG DROP

  Drag the items on the left to show the different types of security for the shown devices. Not all fields need to be filled. Not all items need to be used.

  Select and Place:

  

  Correct Answer:

  

  For mobile devices, at bare minimum you should have the following security measures in place: Screen lock, Strong password, Device encryption, Remote wipe/Sanitation, voice encryption, GPS tracking, Application control, Storage

  segmentation, Asset tracking as well as Device Access control.

  For servers in a data center your security should include: Fire extinguishers such as FM200 as part of fire suppression; Biometric, proximity badges, mantraps, HVAC, cable locks;

  these can all be physical security measures to control access to the server.

  References:

  Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p. 418

• Question 194:

  DRAG DROP

  Drag and drop the correct protocol to its default port.

  Select and Place:

  

  Correct Answer:

  

  FTP uses TCP port 21.

  Telnet uses port 23.

  SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure filetransfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP).

  Secure FTP (SFTP) is a secured alternative to standard File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

  SMTP uses TCP port 25.

  Port 69 is used by TFTP.

  SNMP makes use of UDP ports 161 and 162.

  References:

  Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 42, 45, 51

  http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers

• Question 195:

  DRAG DROP

  A security engineer is setting up passwordless authentication for the first time.

  INSTRUCTIONS

  Use the minimum set of commands to set this up and verify that it works. Commands cannot be reused.

  If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

  Select and Place:

  

  Correct Answer:

  

• Question 196:

  DRAG DROP

  A security administrator is given the security and availability profiles for servers that are being deployed.

  Match each RAID type with the correct configuration and MINIMUM number of drives.

  Review the server profiles and match them with the appropriate RAID type based on integrity, availability, I/O, storage requirements. Instructions:

  1.

  All drive definitions can be dragged as many times as necessary

  2.

  Not all placeholders may be filled in the RAID configuration boxes

  3.

  If parity is required, please select the appropriate number of parity checkboxes

  4.

  Server profiles may be dragged only once

  Instructions: If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.

  Select and Place:

  

  Correct Answer:

  

  RAID-0 is known as striping. It is not a fault tolerant solution but does improve disk performance for read/write operations. Striping requires a minimum of two disks and does not use parity. RAID-0 can be used where performance is required

  over fault tolerance, such as a media streaming server.

  RAID-1 is known as mirroring because the same data is written to two disks so that the two disks have identical data. This is a fault tolerant solution that halves the storage space. A minimum of two disks are used in mirroring and does not

  use parity. RAID-1 can be used where fault tolerance is required over performance, such as on an authentication server.

  RAID-5 is a fault tolerant solution that uses parity and striping. A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 with one disk's worth of space being used for parity information.

  However, the parity information is distributed across all the disks. RAID-5 can recover from a sing disk failure.

  RAID-6 is a fault tolerant solution that uses dual parity and striping. A minimum of four disks are required for RAID-6. Dual parity allows RAID-6 to recover from the simultaneous failure of up to two disks. Critical data should be stored on a

  RAID-6 system.

  References:

  Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 34-36, 234-235

• Question 197:

  DRAG DROP

  A Security administrator wants to implement strong security on the company smart phones and terminal servers located in the data center. Drag and Drop the applicable controls to each asset type. Instructions: Controls can be used multiple times and not all placeholders needs to be filled. When you have completed the simulation, Please select Done to submit.

  Select and Place:

  

  Correct Answer:

  

  Cable locks are used as a hardware lock mechanism

• Question 198:

  DRAG DROP

  A forensic analyst is asked to respond to an ongoing network attack on a server. Place the items in the list below in the correct order in which the forensic analyst should preserve them.

  Select and Place:

  

  Correct Answer:

  

  When dealing with multiple issues, address them in order of volatility (OOV); always deal with the most volatile first. Volatility can be thought of as the amount of time that you have to collect certain data before a window of opportunity is gone.

  Naturally, in an investigation you want to collect everything, but some data will exist longer than others, and you cannot possibly collect all of it once. As an example, the OOV in an investigation may be RAM, hard drive data, CDs/DVDs, and

  printouts.

  Order of volatility: Capture system images as a snapshot of what exists, look at network traffic and logs, capture any relevant video/screenshots/hashes, record time offset on the systems, talk to witnesses, and track total man-hours and

  expenses associated with the investigation.

  References:

  Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p. 453

• Question 199:

  DRAG DROP

  Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list. Determine the types of Attacks from right to specific action.

  Select and Place:

  

  Correct Answer:

  

  A. Phishing.

  B. Whaling.

  C. Vishing.

  D. Spim.

  E. Social engineering.

  A: Phishing is the act of sending an email to a user falsely claiming to be an established legitimate enterprise in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft.

  Phishing email will direct the user to visit a website where they are asked to update personal information, such as a password, credit card, social security, or bank account numbers, that the legitimate organization already has. The website,

  however, is bogus and set up only to steal the information the user enters on the page.

  B: Whaling is a specific kind of malicious hacking within the more general category of phishing, which involves hunting for data that can be used by the hacker. In general, phishing efforts are focused on collecting personal data about users. In

  whaling, the targets are high-ranking bankers, executives or others in powerful positions or job titles.

  Hackers who engage in whaling often describe these efforts as "reeling in a big fish,"applying a familiar metaphor to the process of scouring technologies for loopholes and opportunities for data theft. Those who are engaged in whaling may,

  for example, hack into specific networks where these powerful individuals work or store sensitive data. They may also set up keylogging or other malware on a work station associated with one of these executives. There are many ways that

  hackers can pursue whaling, leading C-level or toplevel executives in business and government to stay vigilant about the possibility of cyber threats.

  C: Vishing is the act of using the telephone in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft. The scammer usually pretends to be a legitimate business, and fools the victim into thinking he

  or she will profit.

  D: SPIM is a term sometimes used to refer to spam over IM (Instant Messaging). It's also called just spam, instant spam, or IM marketing. No matter what the name, it consists of unwanted messages transmitted through some form of instant

  messaging service, which can include Short Message Service (SMS).

  E: Social engineering is a non-technical method of intrusion hackers use that relies heavily on human interaction and often involves tricking people into breaking normal security procedures. It is one of the greatest threats that organizations

  today encounter.

  A social engineer runs what used to be called a "con game." For example, a person using social engineering to break into a computer network might try to gain the confidence of an authorized user and get them to reveal information that

  compromises the network's security. Social engineers often rely on the natural helpfulness of people as well as on their weaknesses. They might, for example, call the authorized employee with some kind of urgent problem that requires

  immediate network access. Appealing to vanity, appealing to authority, appealing to greed, and old-fashioned eavesdropping are other typical social engineering techniques.

  References:

  http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/P/phishing.html

  http://www.techopedia.com/definition/28643/whaling

  http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/V/vishing.html

  http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/social-engineering

• Question 200:

  Which of the following ensures an organization can continue to do business with minimal interruption in the event of a major disaster?

  A. Business recovery plan

  B. Incident response plan

  C. Communication plan

  D. Continuity of operations plan

  Correct Answer: D

  COOP is similar to BCP, but a federal initiative that intends to encourage organizations to address how critical operations will continue under a broad range of negative circumstances. it addresses emergencies from all hazard approach instead of focusing on a specific event.