CompTIA SK0-005 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SK0-005 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 411:

  Which of the following backup types is used to capture all data regardless of any changes from the previous backup jobs?

  A. Incremental
  B. Differential
  C. Archive
  D. Snapshot
  E. Full
  E. Full

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  Explanation

  A Full Backup involves copying all data from a system, regardless of whether the data has changed since the last backup. This process ensures that a complete, standalone copy of all data is available, facilitating straightforward restoration

  without the need for additional backup sets.

  Other Backup Types:

  Option A: Incremental Backup: This method backs up only the data that has changed since the last backup of any type (full or incremental). While it is storage-efficient and has a faster backup time, restoration requires all incremental backups

  since the last full backup, making the recovery process more time-consuming.

  Option B: Differential Backup: This approach backs up all data that has changed since the last full backup. It simplifies the restoration process compared to incremental backups, as only the last full backup and the latest differential backup are

  needed. However, it consumes more storage space and takes longer to perform as time progresses.

  Option C: Archive: Archiving involves moving data that is no longer actively used to a separate storage system for long-term retention. It is not a backup type but a data management process aimed at freeing up primary storage space. Option

  D: Snapshot: A snapshot captures the state of a system at a specific point in time. While it provides a quick way to restore a system to a previous state, it is typically stored on the same system and is not a substitute for a full backup. In summary, the Full Backup is the only method that captures all data irrespective of changes, ensuring a comprehensive and independent data copy.

  References:

  CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives (SK0-005): Security and Disaster Recovery ?Explain the importance of backups and restores

• Question 412:

  A server administrator is creating a new server that will be used to house customer sales records. Which of the following roles will MOST likely be installed on the server?

  A. Print
  B. File
  C. Database
  D. Messaging
  C. Database

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  Explanation

• Question 413:

  An administrator has been asked to deploy a database server that provides the highest performance with fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels will fulfill this request?

  A. RAID 0
  B. RAID 1
  C. RAID 5
  D. RAID 6
  E. RAID 10
  E. RAID 10

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  Explanation

• Question 414:

  A change in policy requires a complete backup of the accounting server every seven days and a backup of modified data every day. Which of the following would be BEST to restore a full backup as quickly as possible in the event of a complete loss of server data?

  A. A full, weekly backup with daily open-file backups
  B. A full, weekly backup with daily archive backups
  C. A full, weekly backup with daily incremental backups
  D. A full, weekly backup with daily differential backups
  D. A full, weekly backup with daily differential backups

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  Explanation

• Question 415:

  Which of the following describes the installation of an OS contained entirely within another OS installation?

  A. Host
  B. Bridge
  C. Hypervisor
  D. Guest
  D. Guest

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  Explanation

  The installation of an OS contained entirely within another OS installation is described as a guest. A guest is a term that refers to a virtual machine (VM) that runs on top of a host operating system (OS) using a hypervisor or a virtualization software. A guest can have a different OS than the host, and can run multiple applications or services independently from the host. A guest can also be isolated from the host and other guests for security or testing purposes.

• Question 416:

  An administrator is troubleshooting an application performance issue on a virtual server with two vCPUs. The application performance logs indicate CPU contention. The administrator adds more vCPU cores to the VM, yet the issue persists. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?

  A. The server has high page utilization.
  B. The server has high disk latency.
  C. The application is single-threaded.
  D. The application cannot be virtualized.
  C. The application is single-threaded.

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  Explanation

• Question 417:

  An administrator is deploying a new secure web server. The only administration method that is permitted is to connect via RDP. Which of the following ports should be allowed? (Select TWO).

  A. 53
  B. 80
  C. 389
  D. 443
  E. 45
  F. 3389
  G. 8080
  D. 443
  F. 3389

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  Explanation

  Port 443 is the default port for HTTPS, which is the protocol used for secure web communication. HTTPS uses SSL/TLS certificates to encrypt the data between the web server and the browser. Port 443 is commonly used for web servers that need to provide secure services, such as online banking, e-commerce, or email. By allowing port 443, the administrator can access the web server's interface and manage its settings1. Port 3389 is the default port for RDP, which is the protocol used for remote desktop connection. RDP allows a user to remotely access and control another computer over a network. Port 3389 is commonly used for remote administration, technical support, or remote work. By allowing port 3389, the administrator can connect to the web server's desktop and perform tasks that require graphical user interface2.

• Question 418:

  An administrator has been asked to verify that all tra c egressing from a company is secured. The administrator con rms all the information that is sent over the network is encrypted. Which of the following describes the type of tra c being encrypted?

  A. Network encapsulation
  B. Off-site data
  C. Secure FTP
  D. Data in transit
  D. Data in transit

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  Explanation

• Question 419:

  A systems administrator is selecting an authentication system for a data center. The company's security policy requires that the system support MFA.

  Which of the following options should the administrator deploy to meet the policy requirements?

  A. A retinal scan and a fingerprint reader
  B. A key fob and an employee badge
  C. An RFID chip and a PIN code
  D. An alphanumeric, case-sensitive password with symbols
  C. An RFID chip and a PIN code

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  Explanation

  Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) requires the use of two or more different authentication factors to verify a user's identity. The three main authentication factors are:

  Something You Know ?e.g., password, PIN, security questions

  Something You Have ?e.g., smart card, key fob, RFID chip

  Something You Are ?e.g., biometrics such as fingerprint or retina scan

  Option C (RFID chip and PIN code) meets the MFA requirement because:

  RFID chip (Something You Have) provides a physical security token.

  PIN code (Something You Know) adds a knowledge-based authentication factor.

  Other Options:

  A. Retinal scan and fingerprint reader ?Both are biometric factors (Something You Are) and do not satisfy MFA requirements, which require at least two different categories.

  B. Key fob and employee badge ?Both are physical items (Something You Have), thus failing to meet MFA requirements.

  D. An alphanumeric, case-sensitive password with symbols ?This only represents Something You Know, not MFA.

  Thus, Option C (RFID chip and PIN code) provides two separate authentication factors and meets the MFA policy requirements.

  CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives (SK0-005): Security and Disaster Recovery ?Explain authentication and access control

• Question 420:

  Which of the following is used for fail over, providing access to all the services currently in use by an organization without having to physically move any servers or employees?

  A. The cloud
  B. A cold site
  C. A warm site
  D. An emergency operations center
  A. The cloud

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  Explanation