CompTIA SK0-005 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SK0-005 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 261:

  An organization purchased six new 4TB drives for a server. An administrator is tasked with creating an efficient RAID given the minimum disk space requirement of 19TBs. Which of the following should the administrator choose to get the most efficient use of space?

  A. RAID 1
  B. RAID 5
  C. RAID 6
  D. RAID 10
  B. RAID 5

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  Explanation

  RAID 5 is a RAID level that uses disk striping with parity. It requires a minimum of three disks and can handle one disk failure. RAID 5 distributes the parity information across all the disks in the array, which improves the read performance and reduces the write penalty. The capacity of a RAID 5 array is (N-1) times the size of the smallest disk, where N is the number of disks in the array. Therefore, for six 4TB disks, the capacity of a RAID 5 array would be (6-1) x 4TB = 20TB, which meets the minimum disk space requirement of 19TB. RAID 5 also has the leastamount of disk space lost to RAID overhead among the options, as it only uses onedisk's worth of space for parity

• Question 262:

  Which of the following testing exercises for disaster recovery is primarily used to discuss incident response strategies for critical systems without affecting production data?

  A. Tabletcp
  B. Backup recovery test
  C. Lrverail over
  D. Hot-site visit audit
  A. Tabletcp

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  Explanation

  A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that is primarily used to discuss incident response strategies for critical systems without affecting production data. A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based session where team members meet in an informal, classroom setting to review their roles and responsibilities during an emergency and their responses to a hypothetical scenario. A facilitator guides the participants through the discussion and evaluates the strengths and weaknesses of the preparedness program. A tabletop exercise does not involve any actual deployment of resources or activation of systems12. A backup recovery test (B) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves restoring data from backup media to verify its integrity and availability. A backup recovery test may affect production data if it is not performed on a separate environment. A live failover ?is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves switching operations from a primary site to a secondary site in case of a failure or disruption. A live failover may affect production data if it is not performed on a simulated environment. A hot-site visit audit (D) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves inspecting and evaluating a hot site, which is a backup location that has fully operational equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. A hot-site visit audit does not involve any discussion of incident response strategies or simulation of scenarios.

  References: https://www.ready.gov/testing-exercises https://www.ready.gov/exercises

• Question 263:

  An administrator is troubleshooting a performance issue with an application. The application performs many small reads and writes in its operation. The administrator determines that the underlying storage is currently configured to use a general-purpose array with RAID 5. Which of the following should the administrator consider doing in order to offer higher application performance yet still retain data protection?

  A. Move the application to an array using RAID 0.
  B. Move the application to an array using RAID 1.
  C. Move the application to an array using RAID 6.
  D. Move the application to an array using RAID 10.
  D. Move the application to an array using RAID 10.

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  Explanation

  RAID 5 is efficient for read-heavy workloads but is not well-suited for applications that perform many small reads and writes due to the overhead of parity calculations. To improve performance while maintaining redundancy:

  RAID 0 (A): This would improve performance but does not offer any data protection, making it unsuitable.

  RAID 1 (B): Provides redundancy but does not enhance write performance significantly.

  RAID 6 (C): Offers better fault tolerance than RAID 5 but suffers from even higher write penalties due to double parity.

  RAID 10 (D): Combines mirroring (RAID 1) and striping (RAID 0), significantly improving both read and write performance while ensuring redundancy. This makes it the best choice for applications with high-frequency small reads/writes. Since

  the administrator needs higher performance and data protection, RAID 10 is the best choice.

  CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Official Textbook, Chapter 5 ?RAID Performance Considerations

• Question 264:

  An application server cannot communicate with a newly installed database server. The database server, which has static IP information, is reading the following output from ipconfig: IP: 10.0.10.240 Mask: 255.255.255.128 Gateway: 10.0.10.1 The application server is reading the following output from ipconfig: IP: 10.0.10.25 Mask: 255.255.255.128 Gateway: 10.0.10.1 Which of the following MOST likely contains an error?

  A. IP address
  B. DHCP
  C. Gateway
  D. Subnet mask
  A. IP address

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  Explanation

  The database has IP: 10.0.10.240 - Mask: 255.255.255.128 - Gateway: 10.0.10.1 This mask gives two subnets 10.0.10.0/25 and 10.0.10.128/25 so the ip address and the gateway are on different subnets.

  The Application Server is on IP: 10.0.10.25 - Mask: 255.255.255.128 - Gateway: 10.0.10.1 The IP address and gateway are on the same subnet.

• Question 265:

  A startup company needs to set up an initial disaster recovery site. The site must be cost- effective and deployed quickly. Which of the following sites should the company set up?

  A. Hot
  B. Cold
  C. Colocated
  D. Warm
  B. Cold

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  Explanation

  A cold site is a backup facility with little or no hardware equipment installed. A cold site is the most cost-effective option among the three disaster recovery sites. However, due to the fact that a cold site doesn't have any preinstalled equipment, it takes a lot of time to properly set it up so as to fully resume business operations1.

• Question 266:

  Which of the following should a server administrator configure to ensure access to motherboard software is restricted?

  A. Biometric lock
  B. Data-at-rest encryption
  C. BIOS password
  D. Bootloader authentication
  C. BIOS password

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  Explanation

  ABIOS password restricts access to the motherboard's firmware settings and can prevent unauthorized users from altering critical system configurations, such as boot sequence or hardware settings.

  Biometric lockis a physical security feature but does not restrict access to motherboard software directly.

  Data-at-rest encryption protects data stored on the system's hard drives but does not secure the BIOS or firmware.

  Bootloader authentication ensures that the operating system's boot process is secured, but it is not a method to restrict access to the motherboard's software.

• Question 267:

  Which of the following types of physical security controls would most likely be a target of a social engineering attack?

  A. A security guard
  B. An access control vestibule
  C. Perimeter fencing
  D. Biometric locks
  E. Bollards
  A. A security guard

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  Explanation

• Question 268:

  A server administrator notices the /var/log/audit/audit.log file on a Linux server is rotating too frequently. The administrator would like to decrease the number of times the log rotates without losing any of the information in the logs. Which of the following should the administrator configure?

  A. Increase the audit.log file size in the appropriate configuration file.
  B. Decrease the duration of the log rotate cycle for the audit.log file.
  C. Remove the log rotate directive from the audit.log file configuration.
  D. Move the audit.log files to a remote syslog server.
  A. Increase the audit.log file size in the appropriate configuration file.

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  Explanation

• Question 269:

  Which of the following should be configured in pairs on a server to provide network redundancy?

  A. MRU
  B. SCP
  C. DLP
  D. CPU
  E. NIC
  E. NIC

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  Explanation

  The network component that should be configured in pairs on a server to provide network redundancy is the NIC (Network Interface Card).

  NIC redundancy can be achieved by installing two NICs on a server and configuring them in a team or bond. This allows for the NICs to work in tandem and provide redundancy in case one of the NICs fails or experiences issues. If one NIC fails, the other NIC can continue to handle the network traffic, which helps to ensure that the server remains connected to the network and available.

  While other components listed may have redundancy options or configurations, they do not provide network redundancy in pairs on a server. MRU (Maximum Receive Unit) is a networking term that refers to the largest size of a packet that can be received on a network interface. SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) is a protocol used for securely transferring files between systems. DLP (Data Loss Prevention) is a strategy or technology used to prevent the loss or theft of sensitive data. CPU (Central Processing Unit) is a hardware component that processes instructions in a computer.

• Question 270:

  A technician needs to con gure a server's RAID array for maximum capacity. Which of the following RAID levels BEST meets this requirement?

  B. 1
  C. 5
  D. 6
  A

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  Explanation