CompTIA SK0-005 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SK0-005 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 181:

  Which of the following can be BEST described as the amount of time a company can afford to be down during recovery from an outage?

  A. SLA
  B. MTBF
  C. RTO
  D. MTTR
  C. RTO

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  Explanation

  The term that best describes the amount of time a company can afford to be down during recovery from an outage is RTO. RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable downtime for an application, system, or process after a disaster or disruption. RTO helps determine the level of urgency and resources required for restoring normal business operations. RTO is usually measured in minutes, hours, or days, depending on the criticality and impact of the service.

  https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/recovery-time-objective-RTO

• Question 182:

  Which of the following are measures that should be taken when a data breach occurs? (Select TWO).

  A. Restore the data from backup.
  B. Disclose the incident.
  C. Disable unnecessary ports.
  D. Run an antivirus scan.
  E. Identify the exploited vulnerability.
  F. Move the data to a different location.
  B. Disclose the incident.
  E. Identify the exploited vulnerability.

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  Explanation

  These are two measures that should be taken when a data breach occurs. A data breach is an unauthorized or illegal access to confidential or sensitive data by an internal or external actor. A data breach can result in financial losses, reputational damage, legal liabilities, and regulatory penalties for the affected organization. Disclosing the incident is a measure that involves informing the relevant stakeholders, such as customers, employees, partners, regulators, and law enforcement, about the nature, scope, and impact of the data breach. Disclosing the incident can help to mitigate the negative consequences of the data breach, comply with legal obligations, and restore trust and confidence. Identifying the exploited vulnerability is a measure that involves investigating and analyzing the root cause and source of the data breach. Identifying the exploited vulnerability can help to prevent further data loss, remediate the security gaps, and improve the security posture of the organization. Restoring the data from backup is a measure that involves recovering the lost or corrupted data from a secondary storage device or location. However, this does not address the underlying issue of how the data breach occurred or prevent future breaches. Disabling unnecessary ports is a measure that involves closing or blocking network communication endpoints that are not required for legitimate purposes. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. Running an antivirus scan is a measure that involves detecting and removing malicious software from a system or network. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. Moving the data to a different location is a measure that involves transferring the data to another storage device or location that may be more secure or less accessible. However, this does

  not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited.

  References:

  https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/

  https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1-and-0.0.0.0/

  https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive-removable-devices-and-individual-files/

• Question 183:

  A company needs to increase the security controls on its servers. An administrator is implementing MFA on all servers using cost-effective techniques. Which of the following should the administrator use to satisfy the MFA requirement?

  A. Biometrics
  B. Push notifications
  C. Smart cards
  D. Physical tokens
  B. Push notifications

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  Explanation

  Option B, push notifications, would be the most cost-effective solution to implement MFA on all servers. With push notifications, the user receives a notification on their mobile device or computer prompting them to approve or deny access to

  the server. This method does not require any additional hardware or tokens and can be implemented easily.

  Option A, biometrics, may provide a high level of security, but it would require additional hardware such as fingerprint scanners or facial recognition cameras, which can be expensive.

  Option C, smart cards, require the purchase and distribution of smart cards to all users, which can be costly and time-consuming to manage.

  Option D, physical tokens, such as key fobs or USB tokens, are also costly to purchase and distribute to all users. Additionally, if a user loses their token, it may cause a delay in access to the server until a new token can be distributed.

• Question 184:

  A server administrator just installed a new physical server and needs to harden the OS. Which of the following best describes the OS hardening method?

  A. Apply security updates.
  B. Disable unneeded hardware.
  C. Set a BIOS password.
  D. Configure the boot order.
  A. Apply security updates.

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  Explanation

• Question 185:

  A storage administrator needs to implement SAN-based shared storage that can transmit at 16Gb over an optical connection. Which of the following connectivity options would BEST meet this requirement?

  A. Fibre Channel
  B. FCoE
  C. iSCSI
  D. eSATA
  A. Fibre Channel

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  Explanation

  The connectivity option that would best meet this requirement is Fibre Channel.

  Fibre Channel is a high-speed network technology commonly used for storage area networks (SANs). It provides high-bandwidth, low-latency connectivity for storage devices over an optical connection. Fibre Channel supports speeds up to

  16Gbps and is therefore the best option for meeting the requirement of transmitting at 16Gb over an optical connection.

  FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) is a technology that encapsulates Fibre Channel frames within Ethernet frames for transmission over Ethernet networks, but it requires special hardware and is not widely adopted.

  iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface) is a storage networking standard that carries SCSI commands over IP networks. It is commonly used in smaller SAN environments, but it may not provide the same performance and reliability

  as Fibre Channel.

  eSATA (External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment) is an external interface used to connect storage devices to computers, but it is not a networking technology and does not provide the same capabilities as Fibre Channel.

• Question 186:

  A company is running an application on a file server. A security scan reports the application has a known vulnerability. Which of the following would be the company's BEST course of action?

  A. Upgrade the application package
  B. Tighten the rules on the firewall
  C. Install antivirus software
  D. Patch the server OS
  A. Upgrade the application package

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  Explanation

  Install Latest Patches Don't forget about the applications that may be running on the server. Applications can also be attacked by hackers. That's why software vendors are also periodically issuing security updates. As security issues are reported, they respond by fixing the software. For Windows applications, these updates can accompany the operating system updates if you choose to enable them.

  Other applications may be more of a challenge, but it's hard to find vendors today that don't either automatically send and install the updates or, at the very least, notify you that one is available.

• Question 187:

  Which of the following benefits of virtualization is most important during a data center migration?

  A. Portability
  B. Orchestration
  C. Overprovisioning
  D. Scalability
  A. Portability

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  Explanation

  During a data center migration, the ability to move workloads seamlessly from one environment to another is crucial. Portability in virtualization refers to the capability to transfer virtual machines (VMs) across different physical hosts or data

  centers with minimal disruption. This flexibility simplifies the migration process, reduces downtime, and ensures business continuity.

  Other Options:

  Orchestration: This involves the automated arrangement, coordination, and management of complex computer systems, middleware, and services. While orchestration enhances efficiency in managing virtual environments, it is not the

  primary benefit during a migration process.

  Overprovisioning: This refers to allocating more resources than are physically available, relying on the assumption that not all resources will be used simultaneously. Overprovisioning can lead to resource contention and is generally avoided

  in well-managed virtual environments.

  Scalability: This is the ability to increase or decrease resources and workloads dynamically based on demand. While scalability is a significant advantage of virtualization, it does not directly address the challenges associated with data center

  migration.

  Therefore, Portability is the most critical benefit of virtualization during a data center migration, as it facilitates the efficient and reliable transfer of workloads between environments.

  References:

  CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives (SK0-005): Server Administration ?Summarize the purpose and operation of virtualization

• Question 188:

  Which of the following should be created to understand how long data is stored and how frequently data backups should be scheduled?

  A. Retention policies
  B. Service-level agreement
  C. Life-cycle management
  D. Mean time to recover
  A. Retention policies

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  Explanation

  Retention policiesdefine how long data should be kept before being archived or deleted and help in determining the frequency of backups to ensure data is available when needed. These policies are crucial for compliance, storage

  management, and disaster recovery planning.

  Retention policies (Answer A):These directly address how long data is kept and how often it should be backed up.

  Service-level agreement (Option B):SLAs define performance expectations and uptime, not specific data retention or backup schedules. Life-cycle management (Option C):This refers to managing data from creation to disposal but doesn't

  specifically address backup frequency or retention periods. Mean time to recover (Option D):This metric measures how long it takes to restore services after a failure, not backup scheduling.

  This topic relates toSK0-005 Objective 4.2: Explain the importance of data security concepts.

• Question 189:

  Which of the following is the most effective way to mitigate risks associated with privacy- related data leaks when sharing with a third party?

  A. Third-party acceptable use policy
  B. Customer data encryption and masking
  C. Non-disclosure and indemnity agreements
  D. Service- and operational-level agreements
  B. Customer data encryption and masking

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  Explanation

  The most effective way to mitigate risks associated with privacy-related data leaks when sharing with a third party is customer data encryption and masking. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a key or password. Masking is a process of hiding or replacing sensitive data with fake or meaningless data. By encrypting and masking customer data, the organization can protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure by the third party.

  References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.3, Objective 3.3

• Question 190:

  A technicianretailed a new4TBharddrive inaWindows server. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST to provision the newdrive?

  A. Configure the drive as a base disk.
  B. Configure the drive as a dynamic disk.
  C. Partition the drive using MBR.
  D. Partition the drive using OPT.
  D. Partition the drive using OPT.

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  Explanation

  GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that allows creating partitions on large hard drives (more than 2 TB). It supports up to 128 partitions per drive and uses 64-bit addresses to locate them. MBR (Master Boot Record) is an older partitioning scheme that has limitations on the size and number of partitions (up to 4 primary partitions or 3 primary and 1 extended partition per drive). To provision a new 4 TB drive, the technician should partition it using GPT. Verified

  References: [GPT], [MBR]