Fortinet NSE7_PBC-7.2 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Fortinet NSE7_PBC-7.2 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 1:

  Refer to the exhibit

  

  You are tasked with deploying FortiGate using Terraform. When you run the terraform version command during the Terraform installation, you get an error message.

  What could be the reason that you are getting the command not found error?

  A. You must move the binary file to the bin directory.
  B. You must change the directory location to the root directory
  C. You must assign correct permissions to the ec2-user.
  D. You must reinstall Terraform
  A. You must move the binary file to the bin directory.

  ---

  Explanation

  According to the Terraform documentation for installing Terraform on Linux, you need to download a zip archive that contains a single binary file called terraform. You need to unzip the archive and move the binary file to a directory that is included in your system's PATH environment variable, such as /usr/local/bin. This way, you can run the terraform command from any directory without specifying the full path. If you do not move the binary file to the bin directory, you will get a command not found error when you try to run the terraform version command, as shown in the screenshot. To fix this error, you need to move the binary file to the bin directory or specify the full path of the binary file when running the command. Install Terraform | Terraform - HashiCorp Learn

• Question 2:

  You are troubleshooting an Azure SDN connectivity issue with your FortiGate VM

  Which two queries does that SDN connector use to interact with the Azure management API? (Choose two.)

  A. The first query is targeted to a special IP address to get a token.
  B. The first query is targeted to IP address 8.8
  C. There is only one query initiating from FortiGate port1
  D. Some queries are made to manage public IP addresses.
  A. The first query is targeted to a special IP address to get a token.
  D. Some queries are made to manage public IP addresses.

  ---

  Explanation

  The Azure SDN connector uses two types of queries to interact with the Azure management API. The first query is targeted to a special IP address to get a token. This token is used to authenticate the subsequent queries. The second type of query is used to retrieve information about the Azure resources, such as virtual machines, network interfaces, network security groups, and public IP addresses. Some queries are made to manage public IP addresses, such as assigning or releasing them from the FortiGate VM.

  References: Configuring an SDN connector in Azure, Azure SDN connector using service principal, Troubleshooting Azure SDN connector

• Question 3:

  Refer to the exhibit

  

  An administrator deployed an HA active-active load balance sandwich in Microsoft Azure. The setup requires configuration synchronization between devices-

  What are two outcomes from the configured settings? (Choose two.)

  A. FortiGate-VM instances are scaled out automatically according to predefined workload levels.
  B. FortiGate A and FortiGate B are two independent devices.
  C. By default, FortiGate uses FGCP
  D. It does not synchronize the FortiGate hostname
  B. FortiGate A and FortiGate B are two independent devices.
  D. It does not synchronize the FortiGate hostname

  ---

  Explanation

  B. FortiGate A and FortiGate B are two independent devices. This means that they are not part of a cluster or a high availability group, and they do not share the same configuration or state information. They are configured as standalone FortiGates with standalone configuration synchronization enabled. This feature allows them to synchronize most of their configuration settings with each other, except for some settings that identify the FortiGate to the network, such as the hostname.

  D. It does not synchronize the FortiGate hostname. This is one of the settings that are excluded from the standalone configuration synchronization, as mentioned above. The hostname is a unique identifier for each FortiGate device, and it should not be changed by the synchronization process. The other options are incorrect because: FortiGate-VM instances are not scaled out automatically according to predefined workload levels. This is a feature of the auto scaling solution for FortiGate-VM on Azure, which requires a different deployment and configuration than the one shown in the exhibit. The exhibit shows a static deployment of two FortiGate-VM instances behind an Azure load balancer, which does not support auto scaling. By default, FortiGate does not use FGCP. FGCP stands for FortiGate Clustering Protocol, which is used to synchronize configuration and state information between FortiGate devices in a cluster or a high availability group. However, the exhibit shows that the FortiGates are not in a cluster or a high availability group, and they use standalone configuration synchronization instead of FGCP.

• Question 4:

  How does an administrator secure container environments from newly emerged security threats?

  A. Use distributed network-related application control signatures.
  B. Use Amazon AWS-related application control signatures
  C. Use Amazon AWS_S3-related application control signatures
  D. Use Docker-related application control signatures
  D. Use Docker-related application control signatures

  ---

  Explanation

  Securing container environments from newly emerged security threats involves employing specific security mechanisms tailored to the technology and structure of containers. In this context, the use of Docker-related application control signatures (Option D) is critical for effectively managing and mitigating threats in containerized environments. Docker-Specific Threats:Docker containers, being a prevalent form of container technology, are targeted by various security threats, including those that exploit vulnerabilities specific to the Docker environment and runtime. Using Docker- related application control signatures means implementing security measures that are specifically designed to detect and respond to anomalies and threats that are unique to Docker containers. Application Control Signatures:These are sets of definitions that help identify and block potentially malicious activities within application traffic. By focusing on Docker-related signatures, administrators can ensure that the security tools are finely tuned to the operational specifics of Docker containers, thereby providing a robust defense against exploits that target container-specific vulnerabilities.

  References:The recommendation to use Docker-related application control signatures is based on best practices for securing container environments, emphasizing the need for specialized security measures that address the unique challenges posed by container technologies.

• Question 5:

  Refer to Exhibit:

  

  After the initial Terraform configuration in Microsoft Azure, the terraform plan command is run Which two statements about running the plan command are true? (Choose two.)

  A. The terraform plan command will deploy the rest of the resources except the service principle details.
  B. You cannot run the terraform apply command before the terraform plan command.
  C. You must run the terraform init command once, before the terraform plan command
  D. The terraform plan command makes terraform do a dry run.
  C. You must run the terraform init command once, before the terraform plan command
  D. The terraform plan command makes terraform do a dry run.

  ---

  Explanation

  A is incorrect because the terraform plan command will not deploy any resources at all. It will only show the changes that would be made if the terraform apply command was run. The error message in the exhibit indicates that the service principal details are invalid, which means that Terraform cannot authenticate to Azure and cannot create any resources. B is incorrect because you can run the terraform apply command without running the terraform plan command first. The terraform apply command will automatically generate a new plan and prompt you to approve it before applying it. However, running the terraform plan command first can help you preview the changes and avoid any unwanted or unexpected actions. C is correct because you must run the terraform init command once before the terraform plan command. The terraform init command initializes a working directory containing Terraform configuration files. It downloads and installs the provider plugins required for your configuration, such as the Azure provider. It also creates a hidden directory called .terraform to store the plugin binaries and other metadata. Without running the terraform init command, the terraform plan command will fail because it cannot find the required plugins or modules. D is correct because the terraform plan command makes Terraform do a dry run. A dry run is a simulation of what would happen if you executed a certain action, without actually performing it. The terraform plan command creates an execution plan, which is a description of the actions that Terraform would take to make your infrastructure match your configuration. The execution plan shows you what resources will be created, modified, or destroyed, and what attributes will be changed. The execution plan does not affect your infrastructure or state file until you apply it with the terraform apply command.

• Question 6:

  What is the main advantage of using SD-WAN Transit Gateway Connect over traditional SD-WAN?

  A. It eliminates the use of ECMP
  B. You can use GRE-based tunnel attachments
  C. You can combine it with IPsec to achieve higher bandwidth
  D. You can use BGP over IPsec for maximum throughput
  B. You can use GRE-based tunnel attachments

  ---

  Explanation

  Simplified and Scalable Connectivity: Transit Gateway Connect allows you to establish GRE tunnels to your SD-WAN appliances natively within the AWS network. This eliminates the complexity of managing individual IPsec VPN connections,

  especially as your cloud presence grows. Potential for Enhanced Performance: GRE offers lower overhead compared to IPsec, which can result in higher throughput for bandwidth-intensive SD-WAN applications.

  Flexibility: While IPsec is supported for scenarios requiring strong encryption, the focus on GRE highlights the performance and scalability benefits that are often prioritized when integrating SD-WAN with AWS.

  Dynamic Routing: The integration with BGP further streamlines network management by automating route updates and distribution.

  Addressing the IPsec Consideration:

  It's important to acknowledge that SD-WAN Transit Gateway Connect does support IPsec. If your question is specifically framed within the context of Fortinet's FCSS 7.2 materials and they emphasize the hybrid usage of GRE and IPsec, then

  a modified answer might be appropriate:

• Question 7:

  You are automating configuration changes on one of the FortiGate VMS using Linux Red Hat Ansible.

  How does Linux Red Hat Ansible connect to FortiGate to make the configuration change?

  A. It uses a FortiGate internal or external IP address with TCP port 21
  B. It uses SSH as a connection method to FortiOS.
  C. It uses an API.
  D. It uses YAML
  C. It uses an API.

  ---

  Explanation

  Ansible connects to FortiGate using an API, which is a method of communication between different software components. Ansible uses the fortios_* modules to interact with the FortiOS API, which is a RESTful API that allows configuration

  and monitoring of FortiGate devices. Ansible can use either HTTP or HTTPS as the transport protocol, and can authenticate with either a username and password or an API token.

  The other options are incorrect because:

  Ansible does not use TCP port 21 to connect to FortiGate. Port 21 is typically used for FTP, which is not supported by FortiOS.

  Ansible does not use SSH as a connection method to FortiOS. SSH is a secure shell protocol that allows remote command execution and file transfer, but it is not the preferred way of automating configuration changes on FortiGate devices.

  Ansible does not use YAML to connect to FortiGate. YAML is a data serialization language that Ansible uses to write playbooks and inventory files, but it is not a connection method.

  References:

  Fortinet.Fortios -- Ansible Documentation

  FortiOS REST API Reference

  FortiOS Module Guide -- Ansible Documentation FortiOS 7.0 CLI Reference [Connection methods and details -- Ansible Documentation] [YAML Syntax -- Ansible Documentation]

• Question 8:

  Refer to the exhibit

  

  An administrator deployed a FortiGate-VM in a high availability (HA)

  (active/passive) architecture in Amazon Web Services (AWS) using Terraform

  for testing purposes. At the same time, the administrator deployed a single

  Linux server using AWS Marketplace

  Which two options are available for the administrator to delete all the resources

  created in this test? (Choose two.)

  A. Use the terraform destroy command
  B. Use the terraform validate command.
  C. Use the terraform destroy all command.
  D. The administrator must manually delete the Linux server.
  A. Use the terraform destroy command
  D. The administrator must manually delete the Linux server.

  ---

  Explanation

  A. Use the terraform destroy command. This command is used to remove all the resources that were created using the Terraform configuration1. It is the opposite of the terraform apply command, which is used to create resources. The terraform destroy command will first show a plan of what resources will be destroyed, and then ask for confirmation before proceeding. The command will also update the state file to reflect the changes.

  D. The administrator must manually delete the Linux server. This is because the Linux server was not deployed using Terraform, but using AWS Marketplace2. Therefore, Terraform does not have any information about the Linux server in its state file, and cannot manage or destroy it. The administrator will have to use the AWS console or CLI to delete the Linux server manually. The other options are incorrect because: There is no terraform validate command. The correct command is terraform plan, which is used to show a plan of what changes will be made by applying the configuration3. However, this command does not delete any resources, it only shows what will happen if terraform apply or terraform destroy is run. There is no terraform destroy all command. The correct command is terraform destroy, which will destroy all the resources in the current configuration by default1. There is no need to add an all argument to the command.

• Question 9:

  Refer to the exhibit.

  

  What would be the impact of confirming to delete all the resources in Terraform?

  A. It destroys all the resources in the . tfvars file
  B. It destroys all the resources tied to the AWS Identity and Access Management (1AM) user.
  C. It destroys all the resources in the resource group
  D. It destroys all the resources in the state file.
  D. It destroys all the resources in the state file.

  ---

  Explanation

  Confirming to delete all the resources in Terraform will have the following impact:

  D.It destroys all the resources in the state file. Terraform State File Role:Theterraform.tfstatefile contains a real-time mapping of the resources that Terraform manages, including their current configuration and relationships. This file tracks the

  actual state of resources provisioned by Terraform.

  Impact of Destruction:When Terraform prompts for confirmation to destroy resources, and 'yes' is entered, Terraform reads the state file and systematically removes all the resources that are managed as part of that state. This is not limited to

  a specific .tfvars file, IAM user, or resource group--it is a global action that affects all resources tracked by the state file associated with the current Terraform workspace and configuration.

  References:The function of theterraform.tfstatefile and the impact of resource destruction are detailed in Terraform's official documentation. This behavior is fundamental to how Terraform manages infrastructure as code.

• Question 10:

  You are adding a new spoke to the existing transit VPC environment using the AWS Cloud Formation template. Which two components must you use for this deployment? (Choose two.)

  A. The OSPF AS value used for the hub.
  B. The Amazon CloudWatch tag value.
  C. The BGPASN value used for the transit VPC.
  D. The tag value of the spoke
  C. The BGPASN value used for the transit VPC.
  D. The tag value of the spoke

  ---

  Explanation

  When using an AWS CloudFormation template to add a new spoke to an existing transit VPC environment, the necessary components are:

  The BGPASN value used for the transit VPC (Option C):BGP Autonomous System Number (ASN) is required for setting up BGP routing between the transit VPC and the new spoke. This number uniquely identifies the system in BGP routing

  and is crucial for correct routing and avoiding routing conflicts. The tag value of the spoke (Option D):Tags in AWS are used to identify and manage resources. The tag value assigned to a spoke VPC helps in organizing, managing, and

  locating the VPC within the larger AWS environment. Tags are essential for automation scripts and policies that depend on specific identifiers to apply configurations or rules.

  References:AWS CloudFormation and AWS Transit Gateway documentation provide guidance on the use of BGPASN and tags for managing and automating VPC deployments effectively.