CompTIA N10-009 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA N10-009 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 721:

  A customer calls the help desk to report that resources are no longer reachable. The resources were available before network changes were made. The technician verifies the report, investigates, and discovers that a new logical layout is segmenting the network using tagging.

  Which of the following appliances most likely needs to be reviewed to restore the connections?

  A. Access point
  B. Firewall
  C. Switch
  D. Load balancer
  C. Switch

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is Switch because the question references a new logical layout segmenting the network using tagging, which indicates VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) configuration. VLAN tagging (IEEE 802.1Q) is performed on switches to logically separate broadcast domains within the same physical infrastructure.

  According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching technologies, VLANs are used to improve security, reduce broadcast traffic, and logically segment network traffic. When VLAN tagging is misconfigured-such as incorrect trunk ports, access port assignments, or mismatched VLAN IDs-devices may lose connectivity to required network resources.

  Since the issue began after changes involving tagging, the most likely cause is an incorrect switch configuration, such as improper VLAN assignments or trunking settings.

  An access point (Option A) may use VLANs for SSID segmentation, but core tagging configuration is handled at the switch. A firewall (Option B) filters traffic but does not control VLAN tagging at Layer 2 in typical deployments. A load balancer (Option D) distributes traffic among servers and is unrelated to VLAN segmentation.

  Therefore, reviewing the switch configuration is the appropriate action to restore connectivity.

• Question 722:

  A network technician is selecting new network hardware, and availability is the main concern.

  Which of the following availability concepts should the technician consider?

  A. RTO
  B. MTTR
  C. MTBF
  D. RPO
  C. MTBF

• Question 723:

  Which of the following is the next step to take after successfully testing a root cause theory?

  A. Determine resolution steps.
  B. Duplicate the problem in a lab.
  C. Present the theory for approval.
  D. Implement the solution to the problem.
  A. Determine resolution steps.

• Question 724:

  A network engineer needs to order cabling to connect two buildings within the same city.

  Which of the following media types should the network engineer use?

  A. Coaxial
  B. Twinaxial
  C. Single-mode fiber
  D. Cat 5
  C. Single-mode fiber

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  Explanation

  Single-mode fiber is designed for long-distance communication and supports transmission over many kilometers with high bandwidth and low signal loss. It is also immune to electromagnetic interference, making it suitable for connecting buildings across a city.

  Coaxial and twinaxial cables are used for short-distance or specialized connections.

  Cat 5 cable is limited to short distances and is not suitable for long-range connectivity.

  Therefore, single-mode fiber is the correct choice.

• Question 725:

  A technician needs to remotely install software on a Windows server.

  Which protocol should be used?

  A. SSH
  B. FTP
  C. RDP
  D. Telnet
  C. RDP

• Question 726:

  A network technician plugged a workstation in to a network device. When the technician turned on the workstation, it was not connected at full duplex.

  Which of the following devices was the workstation connected to?

  A. Media converter
  B. Hub
  C. Bridge
  D. Layer 3 switch
  B. Hub

• Question 727:

  Users usually use RDP to connect to a terminal server with hostname TS19 that points to 10.0.100.19. However, users recently have been unable to connect TS19 to. The technician pings 10.0.100.19 and gets an unreachable error.

  Which of the following is the most likely cause?

  A. The users are on the wrong subnet.
  B. The DHCP server renewed the lease.
  C. The IP address was not reserved.
  D. The hostname was changed.
  A. The users are on the wrong subnet.

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  Explanation

  If a host cannot reach an IP address on the network, a common cause is that it is on a different subnet without proper routing.

  Devices on different subnets require a valid gateway and routing configuration to communicate. If routing is missing or misconfigured, the destination will be unreachable.

  DHCP lease renewal does not prevent connectivity if addressing is correct.

  IP reservation is not required for connectivity.

  Changing the hostname does not affect communication when using an IP address.

  Therefore, being on the wrong subnet is the most likely cause.

• Question 728:

  Early in the morning, an administrator installs a new DHCP server. In the afternoon, some users report they are experiencing network outages.

  Which of the following is the most likely issue?

  A. Theadministrator didnot provisionenough IP addresses.
  B. Theadministrator configured an incorrect default gateway.
  C. Theadministrator didnot provisionenough routes.
  D. Theadministrator didnot provisionenough MAC addresses.
  A. Theadministrator didnot provisionenough IP addresses.

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  Explanation

  When a DHCP server is installed and not enough IP addresses are provisioned, users may start experiencing network outages once the available IP addresses are exhausted. DHCP servers assign IP addresses to devices on the network, and if the pool of addresses is too small, new devices or those renewing their lease may fail to obtain an IP address, resulting in network connectivity issues.

  References:

  CompTIA Network+ study materials.

• Question 729:

  A technician is troubleshooting wireless connectivity near a break room. Whenever a user turns on the microwave, connectivity to the user's laptop is lost.

  Which of the following frequency bands is the laptop most likely using?

  A. 2.4GHz
  B. 5GHz
  C. 6GHz
  D. 900MHz
  A. 2.4GHz

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  Explanation

  The laptop is most likely using the 2.4GHz frequency band. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, the 2.4GHz band is particularly susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI) from common household and office devices, including microwave ovens, cordless phones, Bluetooth devices, and baby monitors. Microwave ovens operate at approximately 2.45GHz, which overlaps directly with the 2.4GHz Wi-Fi spectrum. When the microwave is powered on, it emits interference that can significantly degrade or completely disrupt nearby wireless communications operating in this band.

  The 5GHz and 6GHz bands operate at much higher frequencies and do not overlap with microwave emissions, making them far less prone to this type of interference. While higher-frequency bands have shorter range and lower wall penetration, they provide cleaner channels and improved performance in dense environments. The 900MHz band is not used by standard Wi-Fi networks defined in the Network+ objectives and is more commonly associated with legacy cordless phones and certain IoT or proprietary wireless technologies.

  Network+ troubleshooting guidance emphasizes identifying environmental interference sources when diagnosing intermittent wireless connectivity. A common mitigation strategy is to migrate affected devices to the 5GHz or 6GHz bands or reposition access points away from interference sources like break room appliances.

• Question 730:

  Which of the following is an advantage of using an IDS over an IPS?

  A. An IDS requires less processing power to analyze traffic.
  B. An IDS is less disruptive during the initial deployment of the technology.
  C. An IDS is easier to restrict access.
  D. An IDS is more accurate due to fewer false positives.
  B. An IDS is less disruptive during the initial deployment of the technology.

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is B. An IDS is less disruptive during the initial deployment of the technology. An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is designed to monitor and alert on suspicious activity, but it does not sit inline to actively block traffic the way an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) does. Because of that, deploying an IDS usually has less immediate impact on production traffic. It can be introduced to observe network behavior and generate alerts without risking accidental interruption of legitimate communications.

  That makes IDS a safer first step in many environments, especially when teams are still tuning signatures, thresholds, or alert rules. If an IPS is deployed too aggressively before it is properly tuned, it may block valid traffic and create service issues. An IDS avoids that risk because it focuses on visibility rather than enforcement.

  The other options are weaker. is not always guaranteed, since processing needs depend on implementation A and traffic volume. is not a defining advantage of IDS over IPS. is also not reliable, because false C D positives can occur with either technology depending on configuration and signatures.

  For Network+ study purposes, the standard advantage of IDS is that it is passive and less disruptive, especially during initial rollout and monitoring phases.