CompTIA N10-009 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA N10-009 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 651:

  Which of the following are the best device-hardening techniques for network security? (Select two).

  A. Disabling unused ports
  B. Performing regular scanning of unauthorized devices
  C. Monitoring system logs for irregularities
  D. Enabling logical security such as SSO
  E. Changing default passwords
  F. Ensuring least privilege concepts are in place
  A. Disabling unused ports
  E. Changing default passwords

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  Explanation

  Disabling unused ports prevents unauthorized access and reduces the attack surface by ensuring that no inactive or unmonitored entry points are available for exploitation. Changing default passwords is critical for security because default credentials are widely known and can easily be exploited by attackers. These techniques are fundamental steps in hardening devices against unauthorized access and ensuring network security.

  References:

  CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

• Question 652:

  A technician wants to assign addresses to PCs on a subnet that uses IPv4 and IPv6. The DHCP server only supports IPv4.

  Which of the following can the technician use to assign IPv6 addresses without DHCP?

  A. SLAAC
  B. APIPA
  C. MAC reservation
  D. IPv4 to IPv6 tunnel
  A. SLAAC

• Question 653:

  A network architect is implementing an off-premises computing facility and needs to ensure that operations will not be impacted by major outages.

  Which of the following should the architect consider?

  A. Hot site
  B. DCI
  C. Direct Connect
  D. Active-passive approach
  A. Hot site

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  Explanation

  A hot site is a fully operational backup facility with hardware, network, and data synchronization already in place. It allows for immediate failover in the event of a disaster, minimizing downtime.

  Option B. DCI (Data Center Interconnect)connects data centers but doesn't guarantee availability unless built redundantly.

  Option C. Direct Connectrefers to a private link to cloud providers, not disaster recovery.

  Option D. Active-passivecan help with failover but may involve delay unless combined with hot site principles.

  References:

  CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.4?Summarize business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.

• Question 654:

  A technician needs to identify a break in a fiber cable.

  Which of the following tools should be used?

  A. Multimeter
  B. Cable tester
  C. Toner probe
  D. OTDR
  D. OTDR

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  Explanation

  An Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) is used to detect faults, breaks, or signal loss in fiber optic cables. It works by sending light pulses through the fiber and measuring reflections to determine the location and severity of issues.

  Multimeters and toner probes are used for copper cables, while basic cable testers may not provide precise fault location in fiber. OTDR is the most accurate tool for diagnosing fiber optic cable problems.

• Question 655:

  Which of the following kinds of targeted attacks uses multiple computers or bots to request the same resource repeatedly?

  A. On-path
  B. DDoS
  C. ARP spoofing
  D. MAC flooding
  B. DDoS

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  Explanation

  A DDoS makes the most sense because in a DDoS attack, the threat actor uses multiple computers that are infected to constantly make requests to a server which overwhelms it and causes network interruption.

• Question 656:

  A firewall administrator is mapping a server's internal IP address to an external IP address for public use.

  Which of the following is the name of this function?

  A. NAT
  B. VIP
  C. PAT
  D. BGP
  A. NAT

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  Explanation

  Network Address Translation (NAT) is a process that allows a device, typically a firewall or router, to map private IP addresses to public IP addresses. This enables internal network devices to communicate over the internet using a single or a limited number of public IP addresses.

  Static NAT (One-to-One Mapping): Maps a single private IP address to a single public IP address, commonly used for servers that need to be accessible from the internet.

  Dynamic NAT (Many-to-Many Mapping): Dynamically assigns a public IP from a pool to internal devices.

  PAT (Port Address Translation): A type of NAT where multiple private IPs share a single public IP using different port numbers.

  Incorrect Options:

  Option B:

  VIP (Virtual IP Address): Used in load balancing and high-availability configurations, not for NAT.

  Option C:

  PAT (Port Address Translation): A specific form of NAT, but the question refers to general NAT, making option A the best choice.

  Option D:

  BGP (Border Gateway Protocol): A routing protocol used to exchange information between different networks, not related to NAT.

• Question 657:

  A network engineer receives a new router to use for WAN connectivity.

  Which of the following best describes the layer the network engineer should connect the new router to?

  A. Access
  B. Core
  C. Leaf
  D. Spine
  C. Leaf

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  Explanation

  In a spine-leaf architecture, endpoints (including servers, firewalls, and WAN/edge routers) connect to leaf switches. Leaf switches then uplink to spine switches; spine switches do not have endpoints connected directly to them. Therefore, a WAN router (an external/edge device) should connect to the leaf layer-often specifically to a border leaf that handles external connectivity.

  Why not

  B. Core or

  D. Spine? In spine-leaf, "core" isn't a formal layer, and spines are designed only to interconnect leaves, not to terminate endpoints.

  Why not A. Access? "Access" is a term from the traditional three-tier model (accessistribution-core). In modern spine-leaf terminology, the analogous layer for endpoint attachment is the leaf.

  References:

  Domain: Network Infrastructure - Data center and campus architectures (spineeaf vs. three-tier), roles of leaf/spine, WAN/edge connectivity points.

• Question 658:

  A small business is choosing between static and dynamic routing for its network.

  Which of the following is the best reason to use dynamic routing in a growing network?

  A. Easier to configure compared to using manually entered routes
  B. Does not require additional network security controls
  C. Features enhanced network monitoring and visibility
  D. Includes automatic changes and updates in network topology
  D. Includes automatic changes and updates in network topology

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  Explanation

  Dynamic routing is most beneficial in a growing/changing network because it can automatically learn, adapt, and update routes as the topology changes. In Network+ (N10-009) routing objectives, dynamic routing protocols exchange routing information between routers and recalculate paths when links go down, new networks are added, or metrics change. This reduces the operational burden and the risk of human error that increases as the environment scales. With dynamic routing, adding a new subnet or branch often requires far fewer manual updates because routers propagate new route information automatically, and convergence mechanisms help restore connectivity after failures.

  Option A can be partly true in large environments, but the core "best reason" emphasized for dynamic routing is the automatic adaptation to topology changes.

  Option B is incorrect - dynamic routing may introduce additional security considerations (route filtering, authentication, neighbor control).

  Option C is not a defining advantage; monitoring visibility depends on tools/telemetry rather than routing type.

  Therefore, the strongest and most correct reason is automatic changes and updates in network topology.

• Question 659:

  SIMULATION

  A network technician replaced a switch and needs to reconfigure it to allow the connected devices to connect to the correct networks.

  INSTRUCTIONS

  Click on the appropriate port(s) on Switch 1 and Switch 3 to verify or reconfigure the correct settings:

  1. Ensure each device accesses only its correctly associated network

  2. Disable all unused switch ports

  3. Require fault-tolerant connections between the switches

  4. Only make necessary changes to complete the above requirements

  If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

  

  

  

  

  

  

  

  

  

  A. See the solution below in Explanation.
  B. PlaceHolder
  C. PlaceHolder
  D. PlaceHolder
  A. See the solution below in Explanation.

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  Explanation

  To provide a complete solution for configuring the access layer switches, let's proceed with the following steps:

  Identify the correct VLANs for each device and port.

  Enable necessary ports and disable unused ports.

  Configure fault-tolerant connections between the switches. uk.co.Port 1 Configuration (Uplink to Core Switch)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Enabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN90, VLAN120, VLAN150, VLAN220

  Port 2 Configuration (Uplink to Core Switch)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Enabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN90, VLAN120, VLAN150, VLAN220

  Port 3 Configuration (Server Connection)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Disabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN90 (Servers) Port 4 Configuration (Server Connection)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Disabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN90 (Servers) Port 5 Configuration (Wired Users and WLAN)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Enabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN120, VLAN150 Port 6 Configuration (Wired Users and WLAN)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Enabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN120, VLAN150 Port 7 Configuration (Voice and Wired Users)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Enabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN90, VLAN120, VLAN220 Port 8 Configuration (Voice, Printers, and Wired Users) Status: Enabled

  LACP: Enabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN90, VLAN120, VLAN220 Port 1 Configuration (Unused)

  Status: Disabled

  LACP: Disabled

  Port 2 Configuration (Unused)

  Status: Disabled

  LACP: Disabled

  Port 3 Configuration (Connection to Device)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Disabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN1 (Default)

  Port 4 Configuration (Connection to Device)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Disabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN1 (Default)

  Port 5 Configuration (Connection to Device)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Disabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN1 (Default)

  Port 6 Configuration (Connection to Device)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Disabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN1 (Default)

  Port 7 Configuration (Connection to Device)

  Status: Enabled

  LACP: Disabled

  Speed: 1000

  Duplex: Full

  VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN1 (Default)

  Ports 1 and 2 on Switch 1 are configured as trunk ports with VLAN tagging enabled for all necessary VLANs.

  Ports 3 and 4 on Switch 1 are configured for server connections with VLAN 90 untagged.

  Ports 5, 6, 7, and 8 on Switch 1 are configured for devices needing access to multiple VLANs.

  Unused ports on Switch 3 are disabled.

  Ports 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 on Switch 3 are enabled for default VLAN1. Core Switch Ports should be configured as needed for uplinks to Switch 1. Ensure LACP is enabled for redundancy on trunk ports between switches. By following these configurations, each device will access only its correctly associated network, unused switch ports will be disabled, and fault-tolerant connections will be established between the switches.

• Question 660:

  A wireless technician wants to implement a technology that will allow user devices to automatically navigate to the best available frequency standard.

  Which of the following technologies should the technician use?

  A. Band steering
  B. Wireless LAN controller
  C. Directional antenna
  D. Autonomous access point
  A. Band steering

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  Explanation

  Band Steering: This technology enables wireless devices to connect to the most optimal frequency band (2.4 GHz or 5 GHz) by encouraging capable devices to switch to the less congested 5 GHz band. This improves overall network performance and prevents overcrowding on the 2.4 GHz band.

  Wireless LAN controller (B): This manages multiple access points in a network but does not handle frequency optimization.

  Directional antenna (C): This focuses the signal in a specific direction but does not affect frequency selection.

  Autonomous access point (D): This operates independently but lacks advanced features like band steering.