CompTIA N10-009 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA N10-009 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 551:

  An attacker gained access to the hosts file on an endpoint and modified it. Now, a user is redirected from the company's home page to a fraudulent website.

  Which of the following most likely happened?

  A. DNS spoofing
  B. Phishing
  C. VLAN hopping
  D. ARP poisoning
  A. DNS spoofing

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  Explanation

  When the hosts file is altered, local name resolution is compromised, and domain queries are redirected to malicious IP addresses. This is a form of DNS spoofing/poisoning, where false mappings trick users into visiting fraudulent websites.

  Option B: Phishing typically uses emails or messages to trick users, not local file modification.

  Option C: VLAN hopping is a Layer 2 attack to gain unauthorized network access, unrelated to DNS.

  Option D: ARP poisoning manipulates ARP tables on a LAN to reroute traffic, not name resolution.

  References:

  Domain: Network Security -- DNS poisoning/spoofing, host file manipulation, endpoint attacks.

• Question 552:

  Which of the following is used to redistribute traffic between one source and multiple servers that run the same service?

  A. Router
  B. Switch
  C. Firewall
  D. Load balancer
  D. Load balancer

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is Load balancer because it is specifically designed to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple backend servers that provide the same application or service. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under network infrastructure, load balancing improves performance, scalability, and high availability by preventing any single server from becoming overwhelmed.

  A load balancer can operate at Layer 4 (transport layer, based on IP address and port) or Layer 7 (application layer, based on content such as HTTP headers or URLs). It uses various algorithms such as round-robin, least connections, or weighted distribution to efficiently allocate client requests among servers. If one server fails, the load balancer can redirect traffic to healthy servers, ensuring service continuity.

  A router (Option A) forwards packets between different networks but does not distribute traffic among servers running the same application. A switch (Option B) forwards frames within a local network based on MAC addresses. A firewall (Option C) filters traffic based on security rules but does not perform traffic distribution for load-sharing purposes.

  Therefore, a load balancer is the correct solution for redistributing traffic among multiple servers.

• Question 553:

  Which of the following is a cost-effective advantage of a split-tunnel VPN?

  A. Web traffic is filtered through a web filter.
  B. More bandwidth is required on the company's internet connection.
  C. Monitoring detects insecure machines on the company's network.
  D. Cloud-based traffic flows outside of the company's network.
  D. Cloud-based traffic flows outside of the company's network.

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  Explanation

  A split-tunnel VPN allows certain traffic (e.g., cloud-based services) to bypass the VPN and go directly to the Internet. This reduces the amount of traffic that needs to traverse the company's VPN and Internet connection, conserving bandwidth and reducing costs. It also means that not all traffic is subject to the same level of inspection or filtering, which can improve performance for cloud-based services.

  References:

  CompTIA Network+ study materials.

• Question 554:

  As part of an attack, a threat actor purposefully overflows the content-addressable memory (CAM) table on a switch.

  Which of the following types of attacks is this scenario an example of?

  A. ARP spoofing
  B. Evil twin
  C. MAC flooding
  D. DNS poisoning
  C. MAC flooding

• Question 555:

  A media company is implementing a global streaming service.

  Which of the following should the company apply to each regional point of presence in order to comply with local laws?

  A. ACL
  B. Port security
  C. Key management
  D. Content filtering
  D. Content filtering

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  Explanation

  For a global streaming service, different countries and regions often have specific legal requirements about what content can be accessed (for example, age restrictions, prohibited material, censorship rules, or licensing constraints). To comply with these local laws at each regional point of presence (PoP), the company should implement content filtering. In Network+ security objectives, content filtering is a control used to allow, block, or restrict access to specific categories of content, URLs, applications, or media based on policy. Applied regionally, it supports geo-policy enforcement by ensuring that users served by a given PoP receive only content permitted in that jurisdiction.

  An ACL primarily controls network traffic flows (permit/deny based on IPs, ports, and protocols). While ACLs can help block certain services, they are not designed to classify and regulate streaming media content in a way that aligns with legal content rules. Port security is a switch feature to restrict which devices can connect to a port (MAC-based controls) and is unrelated to regional compliance for streamed media. Key management concerns encryption key handling and protects confidentiality/integrity, but it does not determine which content is allowed in a region. Therefore, regional content filtering is the best match for meeting local legal requirements.

• Question 556:

  Which of the following steps of the troubleshooting methodology would most likely include checking through each level of the OSI model after the problem has been identified?

  A. Establish a theory.
  B. Implement the solution.
  C. Create a plan of action.
  D. Verify functionality.
  D. Verify functionality.

• Question 557:

  A few employees report issues with sessions disconnecting frequently, buffering repeatedly, and performing poorly.

  Given the following information:

  1. Employees are in a multitenant office building.

  2. The Wi-Fi uses 2.4GHz.

  3. Wireless signals from users range between -50 to -65dBm.

  4. WPA2 is used.

  Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issues?

  A. Channel overlap
  B. Insufficient wireless coverage
  C. AP antenna type
  D. Outdated encryption usage
  A. Channel overlap

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is A. Channel overlap. The signal strength numbers given, -50 to -65 dBm, are generally strong enough for normal client connectivity, so this does not point to weak coverage. The bigger clue is that the environment is a multitenant office building and the wireless network is using 2.4 GHz. That band is well known for congestion and overlapping channels, especially where many nearby businesses or tenants have their own access points.

  In the 2.4 GHz range, there are only a few non-overlapping channels commonly used. When many APs operate close together on overlapping channels, clients can experience interference, retransmissions, poor throughput, buffering, and connection instability. Those symptoms fit the scenario very well. The other options are less convincing. Insufficient wireless coverage does not line up with the reported signal levels. AP antenna type could matter in some designs, but there is nothing in the question pointing to a directional or placement issue. WPA2 is not the cause of the performance symptoms here; while it is older than WPA3, it does not normally create repeated buffering and disconnections in this way.

  This is really a wireless interference question, and in a crowded 2.4 GHz building, channel overlap is the most likely reason.

• Question 558:

  Which of the following Layer 1 devices is responsible for the termination of fiber-optic connections on an SFP-capable switch?

  A. Transceiver
  B. Modem
  C. Ethernet NIC
  D. Repeater
  A. Transceiver

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  Explanation

  A transceiver is the correct answer because it is the Layer 1 (Physical Layer) component that physically terminates and converts fiber-optic signals on an SFP-capable switch. In CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, transceivers-such as SFP, SFP+, QSFP, and QSFP+ modules-are explicitly identified as physical interface components that handle signal transmission and reception. These modules convert electrical signals from the switch into optical signals for fiber cabling (and vice versa), enabling communication over different media types and distances.

  A modem is also a Layer 1 device, but its purpose is to modulate and demodulate signals for WAN technologies such as DSL or cable-it does not terminate fiber connections on switches. An Ethernet NIC provides network access for end devices like computers and servers and typically terminates copper Ethernet, not modular fiber interfaces on switches. A repeater regenerates and amplifies signals to extend cable distances but does not provide fiber termination or media conversion at a switch port.

  According to Network+ standards, SFP transceivers are essential for flexible network design, allowing administrators to select appropriate fiber types (single-mode or multi-mode), wavelengths, and distances while remaining compliant with physical layer requirements.

• Question 559:

  Which of the following OSI model layers manages the exchange of HTTP information?

  A. Session
  B. Data link
  C. Network
  D. Application
  D. Application

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  Explanation

  HTTP is an application-layer protocol, so the OSI layer that manages the exchange of HTTP information is Layer 7 (Application). In the Network+ (N10-009) objectives, the OSI model is used to map common protocols to the layers where they operate. HTTP defines how web clients and servers format and exchange requests and responses (methods like GET/POST, headers, status codes, and message bodies). Those behaviors are part of the application services provided to end-user software such as web browsers, APIs, and web servers.

  While HTTP relies on lower layers to function (for example, TCP at the Transport layer for reliable delivery and IP at the Network layer for addressing and routing), the protocol logic and meaning of the web transactions exist at the Application layer. The distractors do not fit: the Network layer handles IP routing, the Data Link layer handles frames and MAC addressing on local links, and the Session layer is associated with session establishment/management concepts but is not where HTTP is categorized for Network+ mapping. Therefore, Application is the correct answer.

• Question 560:

  A small company has the following IP addressing strategy: A user is unable to connect to the company fileshare server located at 192.168.10.1. The user's networking configuration is:

  Which of the following will most likely correct the issue?

  A. Changing the IPv4 address to 192.168.10.1
  B. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0
  C. Changing the DNS servers to internet IPs
  D. Changing the physical address to 7A-01-7A-21-01-50
  B. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0

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  Explanation

  If the user cannot communicate with 192.168.10.1, they might be on a different subnet. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 ensures the user and the file server are in the same subnet.

  Breakdown of Options:

  A. Changing the IPv4 address to 192.168.10.1 - This would conflict with the server ' s IP.

  B. Changing the subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 - # Correct answer. Ensures both the user and the server are on the same subnet.

  C. Changing the DNS servers - DNS does not affect local network connectivity.

  D. Changing the physical address - The MAC address does not impact subnet communication.

  References:

  CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide - Domain 2.4: Explain subnetting and addressing concepts.