CompTIA N10-009 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA N10-009 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 281:

  A network technician installs a new 19.7 ft (6 m) Cat 6 UTP cable for the connection between a server and a switch. Communication to the server is degraded, and the NIC statistics show dropped packets and CRC errors.

  Which of the following cables would the technician most likely use instead to reduce the errors?

  A. Coaxial cable
  B. 9.8 ft (3 m) cable
  C. Plenum cable
  D. STP cable
  D. STP cable

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  Explanation

  The errors described - dropped packets and CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) errors - often indicate electromagnetic interference (EMI) on unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling. The correct replacement is STP (Shielded Twisted Pair), which has shielding that protects signals from external interference, ensuring better reliability in noisy environments such as data centers or areas near heavy electrical equipment.

  Option A: Coaxial is not used for modern Ethernet server-switch links.

  Option B: Shorter UTP cable does not solve EMI issues.

  Option C: Plenum cable refers to the cable jacket type for fire safety, not electrical shielding.

  STP cabling reduces interference and ensures reliable gigabit+ Ethernet connections between servers and switches.

  References:

  Domain: Network Troubleshooting - Cabling issues, UTP vs. STP, EMI.

• Question 282:

  Which of the following is the most cost-efficient way to host email services?

  A. PaaS
  B. IaaS
  C. VPC
  D. SaaS
  D. SaaS

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is SaaS (Software as a Service). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, SaaS is the most cost-efficient cloud model for hosting common business applications such as email, collaboration tools, and productivity suites. With SaaS, the cloud provider manages all infrastructure, operating systems, application software, security updates, and maintenance, significantly reducing administrative overhead and operational costs.

  Email services are a prime example of workloads that benefit from SaaS solutions such as Microsoft 365 or Google Workspace. Organizations pay a subscription-based fee, typically per user, and avoid expenses related to server hardware, licensing, patching, backups, redundancy, and disaster recovery. This makes SaaS far more economical than deploying and maintaining email servers internally or in lower-level cloud models. IaaS requires the organization to manage virtual machines, operating systems, email server software, and security configurations, which increases both cost and complexity. PaaS simplifies application development but is not designed for hosting ready-made services like email platforms. A VPC (Virtual Private Cloud) is a networking construct, not a service model, and does not inherently provide email hosting functionality.

  The Network+ objectives emphasize selecting cloud service models based on cost, management responsibility, and operational efficiency. For standardized services like email, SaaS offers the lowest total cost of ownership and the least administrative burden, making it the best and most cost-effective choice.

• Question 283:

  After a company installed a new IPS, the network is experiencing speed degradation. A network administrator is troubleshooting the issue and runs a speed test. The results from the different network locations are as follows:

  1. LocationSpeed DownSpeed Up

  2. Wireless laptop4.8 Mbps47.1 Mbps

  3. Wired desktop5.2 Mbps49.3 Mbps

  4. Firewall48.8 Mbps49.5 Mbps

  Which of the following is the most likely issue?

  A. Packet loss
  B. Bottlenecking
  C. Channel overlap
  D. Network congestion
  B. Bottlenecking

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  Explanation

  Bottlenecking occurs when a device in the network (such as an IPS) cannot process traffic efficiently, resulting in a dramatic drop in throughput. The significant difference between the firewall's speed (48.8 Mbps down) and the end-user devices' speeds (4.8 - 5.2 Mbps down) indicates a bottleneck caused by the IPS.

  Why not the other options?

  1. Packet loss (A) - Would typically cause connection timeouts, not just slow speeds.

  2. Channel overlap (C) - Affects only wireless networks, but the wired desktop is also experiencing slow speeds.

  3. Network congestion (D) - Would show fluctuations in both upload and download speeds, but upload speeds remain unaffected.

• Question 284:

  A Chief Information Officer wants a DR solution that runs only after a failure of the primary site and can be brought online quickly once recent backups are imported.

  Which of the following DR site solutions meets these requirements?

  A. Cold
  B. Warm
  C. Active
  D. Hot
  B. Warm

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  Explanation

  A warm site is partially configured with necessary infrastructure and systems, but it requires recent backups to be restored before becoming fully operational. This provides a balance between cost and recovery time.

  Option A: Cold site has only power and space, requiring full setup, which takes too long.

  Option C: Active (active-active) runs simultaneously with the primary site, not only during failure.

  Option D: Hot site is fully operational at all times and can take over immediately, but it's more expensive.

  References:

  Domain: Network Infrastructure -- Disaster recovery sites (cold, warm, hot, active).

• Question 285:

  Which of the following ports is used for HTTPS?

  A. 21
  B. 22
  C. 80
  D. 443
  D. 443

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  Explanation

  Port 443 is the default port for HTTPS traffic, which uses SSL/TLS encryption to secure web communications. Port 80 is used for HTTP, port 21 for FTP, and port 22 for SSH. HTTPS ensures that data exchanged between clients and servers is encrypted, protecting against interception and tampering. It is widely used for secure websites and online transactions.

• Question 286:

  A network technician is attempting to harden a commercial switch that was recently purchased.

  Which of the following hardening techniques best mitigates the use of publicly available information?

  A. Changing the default password
  B. Blocking inbound SSH connections
  C. Removing the gateway from the network configuration
  D. Restricting physical access to the switch
  A. Changing the default password

• Question 287:

  Which of the following would allow a network administrator to analyze attacks coming from the internet without affecting latency?

  A. IPS
  B. IDS
  C. Load balancer
  D. Firewall
  B. IDS

• Question 288:

  Which of the following appliances provides users with an extended footprint that allows connections from multiple devices within a designated WLAN?

  A. Router
  B. Switch
  C. Access point
  D. Firewall
  C. Access point

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  Explanation

  An access point (AP) provides users with an extended footprint that allows connections from multiple devices within a designated Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN).

  Router: Typically used to connect different networks, not specifically for extending wireless coverage.

  Switch: Used to connect devices within a wired network, not for providing wireless access.

  Access Point (AP): Extends wireless network coverage, allowing multiple wireless devices to connect to the network.

  Firewall: Primarily used for network security, controlling incoming and outgoing traffic based on security rules, not for providing wireless connectivity.

  References:

  CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Explains the roles and functions of network appliances, including access points. Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on deploying and managing wireless networks with access points.

  Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers network devices and their roles in creating and managing networks.

• Question 289:

  A network technician needs to configure IP addressing in a Class C network with eight subnets total:

  Three subnets for 60 hosts Three subnets for 15 hosts

  Two subnets for seven hosts

  Which of the following solutions should the technician use to accomplish this task?

  A. CIDR
  B. APIPA
  C. VLSM
  D. RFC 1918
  C. VLSM

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, VLSM allows a network administrator to create subnets of different sizes within the same network, making it ideal for environments where subnet host requirements vary.

  In this scenario, the technician must support multiple subnet sizes-60 hosts, 15 hosts, and seven hosts-within a single Class C network. Using a single subnet mask for all eight subnets would either waste a large number of IP addresses or fail to meet host requirements. VLSM solves this problem by allowing each subnet to be assigned a custom subnet mask that closely matches its host needs, maximizing address efficiency.

  CIDR enables classless addressing and route aggregation but does not, by itself, describe creating multiple subnet sizes within a single address block. APIPA is a self-assigned addressing mechanism used when DHCP fails and has no relevance to subnet design. RFC 1918 defines private IP address ranges but does not address subnetting strategies.

  The Network+ objectives emphasize VLSM as a best practice for efficient IP address management, especially in enterprise environments where conserving address space and meeting diverse departmental requirements are critical. In this case, VLSM is the only solution capable of meeting all stated constraints.

• Question 290:

  A network administrator needs to segment two departments that share the same physical switch infrastructure but must remain logically separated while still allowing inter-department communication when required.

  Which of the following devices would BEST meet this requirement with minimal additional hardware?

  A. Proxy server
  B. Layer 3 switch
  C. Hub
  D. Load balancer
  B. Layer 3 switch