CompTIA N10-009 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA N10-009 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 121:

  Which of the following protocols can be used to change device configurations via encrypted and authenticated sessions? (Select TWO)

  A. SNMPv3
  B. SSH
  C. Telnet
  D. IPSec
  E. ESP
  F. Syslog
  A. SNMPv3
  B. SSH

• Question 122:

  Which attack encrypts user data and requires backups for recovery?

  A. DDoS
  B. Phishing
  C. Ransomware
  D. Spoofing
  C. Ransomware

• Question 123:

  A company has observed increased user traffic gambling websites to and wants to limit this behavior on work computers.

  Which of the following should the company most likely implement?

  A. ACLs
  B. Content filter
  C. Port security
  D. Screened subnet
  B. Content filter

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  Explanation

  A content filter blocks access to specific websites based on category, URL, or keywords. This is the best solution to restrict gambling websites.

  Breakdown of Options:

  Option A. ACLs Control network access not specific web content,.

  Option B. Content filter? Correct answer. Used to block access to unwanted websites.

  Option C. Port security?Prevents unauthorized device connections not web traffic filtering,.

  Option D. Screened subnet?A DMZ isolates public-facing servers, not user restrictions.

• Question 124:

  A network technician is troubleshooting network latency and has determined the issue to be occuring two network switches( Switch10 and Switch11). Symptoms reported included poor video performance and slow file copying. Given the following informtion:

  

  Which of the following should the technician most likely do to resolve the issue?

  A. Disable automatic negotiation on Switch11.
  B. Modify Switch10 MTU value to 1500.
  C. Configure STP on both switches.
  D. Change the native VLAN on the ports.
  B. Modify Switch10 MTU value to 1500.

• Question 125:

  In an environment with one router, which of the following will allow a network engineer to communicate between VLANs without purchasing additional hardware?

  A. Subinterfaces
  B. VXLAN
  C. Layer 3 switch
  D. VIR
  A. Subinterfaces

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  Explanation

  A subinterface is a logical interface created on a single physical router interface that allows routing between VLANs (known as Router-on-a-Stick (ROAS)). This method is commonly used when only one physical router is available, allowing inter-VLAN communication without additional hardware.

  Why not the other options?

  VXLAN (B) - This is used for extending Layer 2 networks over a Layer 3 infrastructure, primarily in data centers. It does not directly enable inter-VLAN communication. Layer 3 switch (C) - A Layer 3 switch can route between VLANs, but the scenario states that purchasing additional hardware is not an option.

  VIR (D) - This is not a standard networking term in the context of VLAN communication.

• Question 126:

  As part of a recovery strategy, a network administrator needs to make sure no more than eight hours of data loss occurs.

  Which of the following DR metrics describes this requirement?

  A. RPO
  B. MTTR
  C. RTO
  D. MTBF
  A. RPO

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  Explanation

  Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. If leadership states "no more than eight hours of data loss," they are describing how far back the organization is willing to roll data after an outage or disaster-meaning backups, replication, snapshots, or journaling must ensure recoverable data is no older than eight hours. In Network+ terms, this is a core availability and resiliency planning concept: you choose an RPO based on business impact, then implement backup frequency /replication strategy to meet it. By contrast, Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is about how quickly services must be restored (downtime duration), not how much data can be lost. MTTR (Mean Time to Repair/Recover) is an operational reliability metric describing typical time to restore a system, and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) indicates expected time between failures-neither directly states acceptable data loss.

  Therefore, the metric matching "eight hours of data loss" is RPO.

• Question 127:

  A network consultant needs to decide between running an ethernet uplink or using the built-in 5GHz-to-point functionality on a WAP.

  Which of the following documents provides the best information to assist the consultant with this decision?

  A. Site survey results
  B. Physical diagram
  C. Service-level agreement
  D. Logical diagram
  A. Site survey results

• Question 128:

  A network administrator needs a solution to isolate and potentially identify any threat actors that are attempting to breach the network.

  Which of the following should the administrator implement to determine the type of attack used?

  A. MFA
  B. Screened subnet
  C. Captive portal
  D. Honeypot
  D. Honeypot

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  Explanation

  A honeypot is specifically designed to attract, isolate, and observe malicious activity so defenders can learn how an attacker is operating and determine attack techniques. In the context of Network+ (N10-009) security objectives, honeypots (and broader deception technologies) are defensive controls used to detect reconnaissance and exploitation attempts by presenting a decoy system or service that appears legitimate. Because a honeypot should not receive normal production traffic, any interaction is suspicious, making it valuable for identifying threat actors, collecting indicators of compromise, and analyzing the attacker's tools, commands, and behavior patterns. This supports the goal of understanding the type of attack used (for example, credential stuffing, exploitation attempts, lateral movement probes) while keeping the attacker away from real assets.

  MFA strengthens authentication but does not provide a controlled environment to observe attacker techniques. A screened subnet (DMZ) is for segmentation of public-facing services and reducing exposure of internal systems, but it is not primarily used to "bait" and analyze attackers. A captive portal enforces user acknowledgement/authentication for network access; it is not a deception/analysis system. Therefore, honeypot is the best match.

• Question 129:

  A technician received a report that some users in a large, 30-floor building are having intermittent connectivity issues. Users on each floor have stable connectivity, but do not have connectivity to other floors.

  Which of the following devices is MOST likely causing the issue?

  A. User devices
  B. Edge devices
  C. Access switch
  D. Core switch
  D. Core switch

• Question 130:

  A network rack has four servers and four switches with dual power supplies. Only one intelligent PDU is installed in the rack.

  Which of the following is the reason to add a second PDU?

  A. Power redundancy
  B. Failed PSU monitoring
  C. Surge protection
  D. Electricity conservation
  A. Power redundancy

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is Power redundancy because the devices in the rack are equipped with dual power supplies, which are specifically designed to support redundant power sources. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under high availability and physical infrastructure concepts, redundancy is a key strategy to eliminate single points of failure.

  If only one PDU (Power Distribution Unit) is installed, both power supplies from each device may ultimately rely on the same power source. This creates a single point of failure-if the PDU fails or loses upstream power, all connected equipment will shut down despite having dual power supplies.

  By installing a second PDU connected to a separate power circuit (and ideally a separate UPS or power feed), each power supply in the servers and switches can connect to different PDUs. If one PDU fails, the other continues delivering power, ensuring uninterrupted operation.

  Option B (Failed PSU monitoring) is not the primary reason for adding another PDU.

  Option C (Surge protection) can be provided by a single PDU.

  Option D (Electricity conservation) is unrelated to redundancy design.

  Therefore, adding a second PDU provides true power redundancy.