A network deployment engineer is deploying a new single-channel 10G optical connection. Which of the following optics should the engineer MOST likely use to satisfy this requirement?
A. QSFP
B. QSFP+
C. SFP
D. SFP+
Correct Answer: D
SFP+ is a type of optical transceiver that supports 10G single-channel transmission over fiber optic cables. SFP+ stands for small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is compatible with SFP slots on switches and routers.
Question 362:
A security engineer is trying to connect cameras to a 12-port PoE switch, but only eight cameras turn on. Which of the following should the engineer check first?
A. Ethernet cable type
B. Voltage
C. Transceiver compatibility
D. DHCP addressing
Correct Answer: B
The most likely reason why only eight cameras turn on is that the PoE switch does not have enough power budget to supply all 12 cameras. The engineer should check the voltage and wattage ratings of the PoE switch and the cameras, and make sure they are compatible and sufficient. The Ethernet cable type, transceiver compatibility, and DHCP addressing are less likely to cause this problem, as they would affect the data transmission rather than the power delivery.
Question 363:
Which of the following network topologies involves sending all traffic through a single point?
A. Mesh
B. Hybrid
C. Hub-and-spoke D. Point-to-point
Correct Answer: C
Hub-and-spoke is a network topology where each node connects to a central switching device, such as a hub or a switch. All traffic between the nodes must pass through the central device, which acts as a single point of communication and
control. Hub-and-spoke topology is simple, easy to manage, and cost-effective, but it also has drawbacks, such as low redundancy, high latency, and scalability issues.
A company is sending a switch to a remote site to be reused. An administrator needs to move the switch and ensure no network settings persist. Which of the following databases does the administrator need to delete?
A. VLAN
B. STP
C. ARP
D. Trunking
Correct Answer: C
When reusing a switch at a remote site and wanting to ensure that no network settings persist, the administrator should delete the ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) cache. ARP maintains a mapping between IP addresses and MAC addresses in a table, and clearing the ARP cache helps prevent any potential conflicts or issues when connecting the switch to a new network.
Options A (VLAN), B (STP), and D (Trunking) are not databases but rather configuration settings that may need attention depending on the specific requirements of the new network. Deleting VLAN configurations, spanning tree protocol settings, or trunking configurations may be necessary, but they are not referred to as databases.
Question 365:
A user returns to the office after working remotely for an extended period. The user is reporting limited access to the office wireless network and the inability to reach company resources on the network. The user connected to the guest network, ensured all patches were applied, and checked to make sure software was up to date. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
A. The laptop drivers need to be updated to support a new wireless infrastructure.
B. The wireless passphrase has been cycled and needs to be updated.
C. The NAC appliance has labeled the laptop as non-complaint.
D. The WAP transmit power is too low and cannot complete user authentication.
Correct Answer: A
Question 366:
Which of the following diagrams would most likely include specifications about fiber connector types?
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Rack
D. Routing
Correct Answer: B
A physical diagram is a type of diagram that shows the physical layout and connections of the network devices and components, such as routers, switches, cables, and connectors. A physical diagram may include specifications about the fiber connector types, such as LC, SC, FC, ST, MPO, etc., that are used to link the fiber optic cables and devices. A physical diagram can help to visualize the network topology, troubleshoot network problems, and plan network changes
Question 367:
A network technician is attempting to harden a commercial switch that was recently purchased. Which of the following hardening techniques best mitigates the use of publicly available information?
A. Changing the default password
B. Blocking inbound SSH connections
C. Removing the gateway from the network configuration
D. Restricting physical access to the switch
Correct Answer: A
Changing the default password is a hardening technique that best mitigates the use of publicly available information, such as vendor documentation, online forums, or hacking tools, that may reveal the default credentials of a commercial switch. By changing the default password to a strong and unique one, the network technician can prevent unauthorized access to the switch configuration and management.
Question 368:
Which of the following requires network devices to be managed using a different set of IP addresses?
A. Console
B. Split tunnel
C. Jump box
D. Out of band
Correct Answer: D
Out of band management is a process for accessing and managing network devices and infrastructure at remote locations through a separate management plane from the production network. Out of band management requires network devices to be managed using a different set of IP addresses than the ones used for in-band management or data traffic. This provides a secure and dedicated alternate access method to administer connected devices and IT assets without using the corporate LAN.
Question 369:
A company has a geographically remote office concern for this type of connection?
A. Duplex
B. Collisions
C. Jitter
D. Encapsulation
Correct Answer: C
Jitter is the variation in the delay of packets arriving at a destination. Jitter can cause problems for real-time applications, such as voice and video, that require consistent and smooth delivery of packets. A geographically remote office that connects to the main office via a WAN link may experience high jitter due to factors such as network congestion, routing changes, or link quality. Jitter can be reduced by using quality of service (QoS) mechanisms that prioritize and shape traffic according to its importance and sensitivity. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What is Jitter? | Network Jitter Explained | SolarWinds
Question 370:
Users are reporting performance issues when attempting to access the main fileshare server. Which of the following steps should a network administrator perform next based on the network troubleshooting methodology?
A. Implement a fix to resolve the connectivity issues.
B. Determine if anything has changed.
C. Establish a theory of probable cause.
D. Document all findings, actions, and lessons learned.
Correct Answer: B
According to the network troubleshooting methodology, the first step is to identify the problem and gather information about the current state of the network using the network troubleshooting tools that are available1. The next step is to determine if anything has changed in the network configuration, environment, or usage that could have caused or contributed to the performance issues1. This step helps to narrow down the possible causes and eliminate irrelevant factors. For example, the network administrator could check if there were any recent updates, patches, or modifications to the fileshare server or the network devices that connect to it. They could also check if there was an increase in network traffic or demand for the fileshare server resources2. The other options are not correct because they are not the next steps in the network troubleshooting methodology. Implementing a fix to resolve the connectivity issues (A) is premature without determining the root cause of the problem. Establishing a theory of probable cause ?is a later step that requires testing and verification. Documenting all findings, actions, and lessons learned (D) is the final step that should be done after resolving the problem and restoring normal network operations1.
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