CompTIA N10-008 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA N10-008 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 1091:

  A technician is contracted to install a redundant cluster of devices from the ISP In case of a hardware failure within the network. Which of the following would provide the BEST redundant solution in Layer 2 devices?

  A. Multiple routers
  B. Multiple switches
  C. Multiple firewalls
  D. Multiple budges
  B. Multiple switches

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  Explanation/Reference:

  A switch is a device that connects devices on a network by using packet switching to receive, process and forward data to the destination device. Switches are used in most modern networks, as they are more efficient than hubs and can handle more traffic.

  A redundant cluster of switches is a group of switches that are connected together in such a way that if one switch fails, the other switches will continue to operate. This provides a high level of redundancy and ensures that the network will continue to function even if there is a hardware failure.

• Question 1092:

  Which of the following network devices can perform routing between VLANs?

  A. Layer 2 switch
  B. Layer 3 switch
  C. Load balancer
  D. Bridge
  B. Layer 3 switch

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Layer 3 switches, also known as multilayer switches, are network switches that have the capability to operate at both Layer 2 (data link layer) and Layer 3 (network layer) of the OSI model. They can perform advanced functions such as packet filtering, VLAN routing, and IP address routing, which make them ideal for enterprise networks that require fast and efficient routing between VLANs.

• Question 1093:

  At which of the following OSI model layers does an IMAP client run?

  A. Layer 2
  B. Layer 4
  C. Layer 6
  D. Layer 7
  D. Layer 7

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  Explanation/Reference:

  An IMAP client runs at Layer 7, the application layer, of the OSI model. The OSI model is a framework used to understand how data is transmitted over a network. It consists of seven layers, each of which performs a specific function. Layer 7, the application layer, is the top layer of the OSI model. It is the layer at which application programs, such as an IMAP client, operate. The application layer is responsible for providing services to the application programs and for providing the interface between the application programs and the network.

• Question 1094:

  Which of the following OSI model layers will ensure messages are transmitted to their destinations and no data is duplicated?

  A. Session
  B. Data link
  C. Network
  D. Transport
  D. Transport

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  Explanation/Reference:

  The transport layer is the fourth layer of the OSI model, and it is responsible for end-to-end delivery of data over a network. It uses standard protocols such as TCP, UDP, and DCCP to enhance its functionalities. One of the main functions of the transport layer is to ensure that messages are transmitted to their destinations reliably and in the correct order. It also prevents data duplication by using sequence numbers, acknowledgments, and retransmission mechanisms

• Question 1095:

  An office area contains two PoE-enabled WAPs. After the area was remodeled, new cable uplinks were installed in the ceiling above the fluorescent lights. However, after the WAPs were reconnected, users reported slowness and application errors. An intern reviewed the network and discovered a lot of CRC errors. A network engineer reviewed the intern's work and realized UTP cabling was used. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the CRC errors?

  A. Insufficient power at the antennas
  B. PoE and UTP incompatibility
  C. Electromagnetic interference
  D. Wrong cable pinout
  C. Electromagnetic interference

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  Explanation/Reference:

  "EMI is a problem when cables are installed near electrical devices, such as air conditioners or fluorescent light fixtures. If a network medium is placed close enough to such a device, the signal within the cable might become corrupt. Network media vary in their resistance to the effects of EMI. Standard unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable is susceptible to EMI, whereas fiber cable, with its light transmissions, is resistant to EMI. When deciding on a particular medium, consider where it will run and the impact EMI can have on the installation."

• Question 1096:

  A network technician is configuring a new firewall for a company with the necessary access requirements to be allowed through the firewall. Which of the following should be applied as the LAST rule in the firewall?

  A. Secure SNMP
  B. Port security
  C. Implicit deny
  D. DHCP snooping
  C. Implicit deny

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Implicit deny is a firewall rule that blocks all traffic that is not explicitly allowed by other rules. Implicit deny is usually applied as the last rule in the firewall to ensure that only the necessary access requirements are allowed through the firewall

  and that any unwanted or malicious traffic is rejected. Implicit deny can also provide a default security policy and a baseline for auditing and logging purposes. Secure SNMP is a protocol that allows network devices to send event messages to

  a centralized server or console for logging and analysis. Secure SNMP can be used to monitor and manage the status, performance, and configuration of network devices. Secure SNMP can also help to detect and respond to potential

  problems or faults on the network. However, secure SNMP is not a firewall rule; it is a network management protocol.

  Port security is a feature that allows a switch to restrict the devices that can connect to a specific port based on their MAC addresses. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks on the switch.

  However, port security is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature.

  DHCP snooping is a feature that allows a switch to filter DHCP messages and prevent rogue DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. DHCP snooping can help to prevent IP address conflicts, spoofing, or denialof-service attacks on the network. However, DHCP snooping is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature.

• Question 1097:

  A voice engineer is troubleshooting a phone issue. When a call is placed, the caller hears echoes of the receiver's voice. Which of the following are the causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

  A. Jitter
  B. Speed mismatch
  C. QoS misconfiguration
  D. Protocol mismatch
  E. CRC errors
  F. Encapsulation errors
  A. Jitter
  C. QoS misconfiguration

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  Explanation/Reference:

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  Jitter refers to the variation in the arrival time of packets, which can cause delays or disruptions in the delivery of audio or voice data. In the context of a phone call, jitter can cause the audio packets to arrive at the receiver at different times, leading to gaps in the audio and potential echoes. This is because some of the audio data may be repeated due to the receiver receiving the same audio packet more than once, resulting in an echo effect.

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  QoS (Quality of Service) misconfiguration can also lead to echoes by causing latency or delay in the transmission of audio data. QoS helps to prioritize network traffic, ensuring that voice or audio data is given priority over other types of traffic on the network. If QoS is misconfigured or not optimized properly, the voice data may experience delay or latency, leading to potential echoes or other audio artifacts. This is because the audio packets may arrive at the receiver at different times, causing overlapping audio and resulting in an echo effect.

• Question 1098:

  An administrator is investigating reports of network slowness in a building. While looking at the uplink interface statistics In the switch's CLI, the administrator discovers the uplink Is at 100% utilization However, the administrator is unsure how to Identify what traffic is causing the saturation. Which of the following tools should the administrator utilize to identify the source and destination addresses of the traffic?

  A. SNMP
  B. Traps
  C. Syslog
  D. NetFlow
  D. NetFlow

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  Explanation/Reference:

  To identify the source and destination addresses of the traffic causing network saturation, the network administrator should use a network protocol analyzer that supports the NetFlow protocol. NetFlow is a network protocol that collects IP traffic information as it enters or exits an interface and sends it to a NetFlow collector for analysis. This data includes the source and destination addresses of the traffic, the ports used, and the number of bytes and packets transferred. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, NetFlow. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, by Todd Lammle (Chapter 6: Network Devices)

• Question 1099:

  A trusted vendor emailed a security advisory to an engineer. The advisory listed publicly disclosed security issues and resolutions for the vendor's installed network devices. Which of the following describes this security concept?

  A. CVE
  B. Exploits
  C. Zero day
  D. SSO
  A. CVE

• Question 1100:

  A new company recently moved into an empty office space Within days, users in the next office began noticing increased latency and packet drops with their Wi-Fi-connected devices. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?

  A. Channel overlap
  B. Distance from the AP
  C. Bandwidth latency
  D. RF attenuation
  E. Network congestion
  A. Channel overlap

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Network congestion would be if they were all on the same network, from the question I'm coming to the conclusion these are two different offices with two different WiFi connections. The new office's channel is overlapping with the preexisting office, causing them to have issues.