ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Online Questions & Answers

• Question 291:

  A typical objective of testing is to ______ A. Determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases.

  B. Verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements.

  C. Plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy

  D. Verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment

  Correct Answer. B
  B

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  Explanation

  One of the primary objectives of testing is to ensure that the software or system being tested meets all regulatory requirements. This is crucial in many industries where compliance with laws and standards is mandatory. According to the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0, testing aims to evaluate the quality of the software product and verify that it complies with specified requirements, including regulatory requirements.

• Question 292:

  Consider the following statements (I to V) about software testing:

  I- Can be applied to non-executable work products.

  II- Can be used to measure performance efficiency.

  III- Can lead to the detection of defects.

  IV- Can find defects directly.

  V- Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.

  Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?

  A. Statements I, III, and IV
  B. Statements II, IV, and V
  C. Statements I, II, and IV
  D. Statements II, III, and V
  A. Statements I, III, and IV

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  Explanation

  Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

  Static testing (A) applies to non-executable work products (I), such as requirements or code reviews. It also leads to defect detection (III) and finds defects directly (IV) without executing the software. Options B, C, and D incorrectly associate static testing with performance measurement (II) or dynamic testing aspects (V).

  ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 3.1.2 ?The Value of Static Testing

• Question 293:

  A tester created a decision table(DT) given below. While reviewing the DT some of the actions for the given conditions were found to be incorrect. The user is trying to view the profile, which of the given conditions has CORRECT action(s) listed?

  

  A. C1
  B. C4
  C. C3
  D. C2
  A. C1

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  Explanation

• Question 294:

  The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.

  What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?

  A. Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test, Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge
  B. Advantage: being closer to customer perspective, Disadvantage less independence in perspectives
  C. Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing, Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development
  D. Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development; Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing
  B. Advantage: being closer to customer perspective, Disadvantage less independence in perspectives

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  Explanation

  Being part of the support team means that the testers are closer to the customer perspective, which is an advantage for testing, as they can better understand the user needs and expectations, and identify more realistic scenarios and risks. However, being part of the support team also means that they have less independence in deciding what and how to test, as they may be influenced by the customer's preferences or requests, which could compromise the objectivity and effectiveness of testing. Verified

  References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 6.

• Question 295:

  Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole- team approach?

  A. Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.
  B. Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.
  C. Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.
  D. Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.
  A. Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.

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  Explanation

  Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

  The whole-team approach promotes collaboration among stakeholders (business representatives, developers, and testers) to ensure better quality and project success (A). This approach allows for early identification of issues, enhances shared responsibility, and improves software quality. Option C is a valid but indirect benefit, while options B and D do not directly describe the core advantage of the whole-team approach.

  ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.5.2 ?The Whole-Team Approach

• Question 296:

  For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:

  1.The bank card is valid

  2.The PIN code is correct

  3.Money is available in the user's account

  The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:

  1.The entered card is invalid The card is rejected

  2.The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code

  3.The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount

  4.The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money

  Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?

  A. Use case based testing
  B. Decision table
  C. Boundary value analysis
  D. Equivalence class partitioning
  B. Decision table

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  Explanation

  A decision table is a technique that should be used to cover all possible combinations of input conditions for withdrawing money from an Automated Teller Machine (ATM). A decision table shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). A decision table consists of four quadrants: conditions (inputs), actions (outputs), condition entries (values) and action entries (results). A decision table can be used to test components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions. For example, for testing the ATM, we can identify three input conditions: the bank card is valid, the PIN code is correct, and money is available in the user's account. We can also identify four output actions: the card is rejected, the ATM asks for another PIN code, the ATM asks for another amount, and the ATM dispenses the money. A decision table can show all possible combinations of these conditions and actions in a systematic way.

  Use case based testing is not a technique that can cover all possible combinations of input conditions for withdrawing money from an ATM. Use case based testing is a technique that verifies that a software product or system meets its specified requirements or user stories by executing realistic scenarios or workflows. Use case based testing can be used to test components that have complex or dynamic interactions with users or other systems. For example, for testing the ATM, we can identify several use cases, such as withdraw money, check balance, transfer money, etc. Each use case can have one or more scenarios that describe the steps and outcomes of the interaction. However, use case based testing may not cover all possible combinations of input conditions, as some scenarios may be omitted or overlooked.

  Boundary value analysis is not a technique that can cover all possible combinations of input conditions for withdrawing money from an ATM. Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be used to test components that have input values that can be divided into partitions of equivalent data. For example, for testing the ATM, we can identify boundary values for the input amount, such as the minimum and maximum amount allowed by the system or the user's account. However, boundary value analysis may not cover all possible combinations of input conditions, as some conditions may not have boundary values or may not be related to input values.

  Equivalence class partitioning is not a technique that can cover all possible combinations of input conditions for withdrawing money from an ATM. Equivalence class partitioning is a technique that divides the input data and output results of a software component into partitions of equivalent data. Each partition should contain data that is treated in the same way by the component. Equivalence class partitioning can be used to test components that have input values that can be divided into partitions of equivalent data. For example, for testing the ATM, we can identify equivalence partitions for the input amount, such as valid amount (within the range allowed by the system and the user's account) and invalid amount (outside the range allowed by the system or the user's account). However, equivalence class partitioning may not cover all possible combinations of input conditions, as some conditions may not be related to input values or may have more than two partitions. Verified

  References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 34-46.

• Question 297:

  Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects [i]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads. [ii]. A user's session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user, [iii]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan. [iv]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted.

  Which of the following statements is TRUE?

  A. [ii] and [iv] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks
  B. [ii]and [iii] are product risks. [I] and [iv] are project risks.
  C. [i], and [iv] are product risks; [ii] and [iii] are project risks
  D. [i], [II] and [iii] are product risks, [iv] is a project risk.
  A. [ii] and [iv] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks

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  Explanation

  In software testing, risks are categorized into product risks and project risks. Product risks are associated with the potential of a product to fail in meeting its quality criteria. Project risks are related to potential issues that could affect the project's ability to deliver a product.

  [i] is a project risk because it concerns the availability and adequacy of hardware resources for performance testing.

  [ii] is a product risk because it pertains to a security and functionality issue within the web application.

  [iii] is a project risk because it involves the availability of necessary requirements documentation for the testing process.

  [iv] is a product risk because it relates to the system's functionality and data integrity after a failure.

  Thus, statement A correctly classifies [ii] and [iv] as product risks and [i] and [iii] as project risks.

• Question 298:

  A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

  A. The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.
  B. The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.
  C. The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods
  D. The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods
  C. The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

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  Explanation

  The thought process of the software company is incorrect, because it assumes that each artifact can be reviewed using only one review method, and that the review method depends solely on the criticality of the artifact. This is a simplistic and rigid approach that does not consider the benefits and limitations of different review methods, the context and purpose of the review, and the feedback and improvement opportunities that can be gained from multiple reviews. According to the CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, the selection of review methods should be based on several factors, such as the type and level of detail of the artifact, the availability and competence of the reviewers, the time and budget constraints, the expected defects and risks, and the desired outcomes and quality criteria. Moreover, the same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods at different stages of the development lifecycle, to ensure that the artifact meets the changing requirements, standards, and expectations of the stakeholders. For example, a requirement specification can be reviewed using an informal review method, such as a walkthrough, to get an initial feedback from the users and developers, and then using a formal review method, such as an inspection, to verify the completeness, correctness, and consistency of the specification. Therefore, the software company should adopt a more flexible and context-sensitive approach to selecting and applying review methods for different artifacts, rather than following a fixed and arbitrary rule.

  References: CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 3.2.1, page 31-32; Section 3.2.2, page 33-34; Section 3.2.3, page 35-36.

• Question 299:

  Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

  Work Product:

  1.Risk register

  2.Risk information

  3.Test cases

  4.Test conditions

  Category of work products:

  A. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-E
  B. 1-A.2-C, 3-B, 4-D
  C. 1-C, 2-A. 3-D, 4-B
  D. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
  A. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-E

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  Explanation

• Question 300:

  Given the following requirement:

  1.Requirement ID: 2 8

  2.Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee

  3.Detailed Description

  An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but

  1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.

  2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.

  3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee.

  Age should be an integer of 0 or above.

  Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.

  Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  A. Thursday is a valid input boundary value.
  B. A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.
  C. $3.01 is a valid output boundary value.
  D. 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.
  A. Thursday is a valid input boundary value.

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  Explanation

  Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be applied to both input and output values. Based on the given requirement, we can identify two input values: age and weekend. Age should be an integer of 0 or above, and weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.

  The following statement is not correct:

  A) Thursday is a valid input boundary value. This statement is not correct, as Thursday is not a boundary value for the input weekend. The boundary values for the input weekend are Friday and Sunday, as they are at the edge of the equivalence partition that represents weekend days.

  The following statements are correct:

  B) A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age. This statement is correct, as we can derive six valid test cases based on input age by using the minimum and maximum values for each equivalence partition defined by the requirement. The equivalence partitions for input age are: under 7 (0 to 6), 7 to 13 inclusive (7 to 13), and greater than 65 (66 and above). The minimum and maximum values for each partition are: 0 and 6, 7 and 13, and 66 and any value above it. C) $3.01 is a valid output boundary value. This statement is correct, as $3.01 is a boundary value for the output additional fee. The additional fee can have four possible values depending on the input age: $0 (for visitors aged under 7), $2.40 (for visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive with a 20% discount), $1.50 (for visitors aged greater than 65 with a 50% discount), and $3 (for visitors aged between 14 and 65). The boundary values for the output additional fee are $0 and $3, as they are at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Therefore, $3.01 is a valid output boundary value, as it is at the smallest incremental distance above $3. D) 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10. This statement is correct, as 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition that represents visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive. This partition includes age 10, which is an internal value within the partition.

  Verified

  References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 37-38.