ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Online Questions & Answers

• Question 251:

  For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage

  IF Gender = Boy If Age > 3 AND Age < 5 Shoe Size = 1 ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7 Shoe Size = 2 ENDIF ELSE IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5 Shoe Size = 0 ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7 Shoe Size = 1 ENDIF

  A. 6
  B. 4
  C. 2
  D. 6
  B. 4

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  Explanation

  To achieve 100% statement coverage, we need to design test cases that ensure every statement in the given pseudo-code is executed at least once. Analyzing the pseudo-code, we notice that there are conditions based on two variables:

  Gender and Age. To cover all statements, we need to consider the paths that lead to each assignment of the Shoe Size variable.

  Gender = Boy, Age <= 3 (Shoe Size assignment is not reached, but the condition is evaluated)

  Gender = Boy, Age > 3 AND Age < 5 (Shoe Size = 1)

  Gender = Boy, Age >= 5 AND Age < 7 (Shoe Size = 2)

  Gender != Boy, Age <= 3 (Again, Shoe Size assignment is not reached, but the condition is evaluated)

  Gender != Boy, Age > 3 AND Age < 5 (Shoe Size = 0)

  Gender != Boy, Age >= 5 AND Age < 7 (Shoe Size = 1)

  However, upon closer inspection, we see that tests 1 and 4 do not contribute to statement coverage as they do not lead to a Shoe Size assignment. Therefore, we only need 4 test cases to achieve 100% statement coverage, making option B

  the correct answer.

• Question 252:

  Which ONE of the following options explains a benefit of independent testing the BEST?

  A. The testers can be isolated from the development team and thus avoid acquiring the same bias as the developers.
  B. Independent testers may lack information regarding the test object.
  C. Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.
  D. Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for the quality of the product they develop.
  C. Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.

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  Explanation

  Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

  Independent testers provide a fresh perspective and are more likely to identify failures that developers might overlook due to their familiarity with the software (C). Independent testing helps avoid cognitive biases, improves defect detection, and enhances the overall quality assurance process. While A and D touch on related concepts, they do not directly define the benefit as well as C does. Option B highlights a potential challenge rather than a benefit.

  ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.5.3 ?The Independence of Testing

• Question 253:

  Which of the following options cover the test types performed during typical system testing phase?

  I- Usability II- Requirements based scenarios III- Testing parts of the code in isolation IV- Correct order of parameters in API calls

  A. I, Ill
  B. I. II
  C. II. IV
  D. II. IV
  B. I. II

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  Explanation

  System testing is a level of testing performed to evaluate the behavior and quality of a whole software product or system. System testing can include various types of testing, such as:

  I) Usability testing: A type of testing that evaluates how easy, efficient and satisfying it is to use the software product or system from the user's perspective. II) Requirements based scenarios testing: A type of testing that verifies that the software product or system meets its specified requirements or user stories by executing realistic scenarios or workflows. System testing does not include the following types of testing, as they are more suitable for lower levels of testing, such as unit testing or integration testing: III) Testing parts of the code in isolation: A type of testing that verifies the functionality and quality of individual software components or units by isolating them from other components or units. IV) Correct order of parameters in API calls: A type of testing that verifies the functionality and quality of software components or units that communicate with each other through application programming interfaces (APIs) by checking the correct order and format of parameters in API calls.

  Verified

  References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 2, page 20-21; Chapter 4, page 34-35.

• Question 254:

  While reporting a defect, which attribute indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system?

  A. Priority
  B. Severity
  C. Status
  D. Description
  B. Severity

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  Explanation

  In defect reporting, the attribute that indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system is the severity. Severity reflects the seriousness of the defect in terms of its impact on the operation of the system, ranging from minor issues that do not significantly affect the system's functionality to critical defects that can cause system failure. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

• Question 255:

  Calculate the measurement error SD for the following estimates done using three point estimation technique - Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days Most likely effort (m) -180 person days Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days

  A. 180
  B. 120
  C. 197
  D. 20
  D. 20

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  Explanation

• Question 256:

  Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). From the specifications you know that:

  If n<; 0. a message";Value out of rang"; must be issued. If 0<; n<; 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number If 100<; n<; 200 message";Value out of rang"; must be issued

  A. There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for numbers up to 200
  B. The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because factorial of numbers close to 200 will be very large
  C. The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because the error message for two partitions is exactly same
  D. The requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping
  A. There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for numbers up to 200

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  Explanation

• Question 257:

  Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

  A. Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released
  B. Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'
  C. Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments
  D. Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation
  D. Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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  Explanation

  This answer is correct because configuration management is a process of establishing and maintaining consistency of a product's performance, functional, and physical attributes with its requirements, design, and operational information throughout its life. Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation. This supports testing by providing traceability, consistency, and control over the test artifacts and the software under test.

  References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, : ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.2.2

• Question 258:

  A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are: Group I: 0-12 Group II; 13-18 Group III: over 18

  Which of the below represent boundary values?

  A. (-1.0.12.13.18,19)
  B. (-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)
  C. (0.12.13.18.19)
  D. (4.5.15.20)
  A. (-1.0.12.13.18,19)

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  Explanation

  A correct list of boundary values for the age input should include the minimum and maximum values of each age group (0, 12, 13, 18), as well as the values just below and above each boundary (-1, 19). Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that involves testing the values at or near the boundaries of an input domain or output range, as these values are more likely to cause errors than values in the middle. Option A satisfies this condition, as it has all six boundary values (-1, 0, 12, 13, 18, 19). Option B has two values from the same equivalence class (12 and 13), option C has only four boundary values (0, 12, 18, 19), and option D has no boundary values at all. Verified

  References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 34.

• Question 259:

  Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the third test quadrant (Q3) ?

  A. This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.
  B. This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.
  C. This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.
  D. This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.
  B. This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

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  Explanation

  Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

  The Agile Testing Quadrants framework categorizes tests based on their purpose and audience :

  Quadrant 1 (Q1): Technology-facing tests (unit and component tests).

  Quadrant 2 (Q2): Business-facing tests supporting development (e.g., BDD tests).

  Quadrant 3 (Q3): Business-facing tests that critique the system (B).

  Includes usability testing, exploratory testing, and UAT to ensure software meets user expectations.

  Quadrant 4 (Q4): Technology-facing tests that critique the system (e.g., performance, security testing).

  Option B correctly defines Q3 since it focuses on evaluating the user experience, exploring the system, and validating business expectations.

  ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 5.1.7 ?Agile Testing Quadrants

• Question 260:

  Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

  I: Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.

  II: Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

  III: Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

  IV:

  The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

  B. I, IV
  C. II. IV
  D. II. Ill
  I. Ill
  D. II. Ill

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  Explanation

  A decision table is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). A decision table consists of four quadrants: conditions (inputs), actions (outputs), condition entries (values) and action entries (results). The following statements about decision tables are true:

  II: Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests. Decision tables can be used to test components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions. Decision tables can help

  cover all possible combinations or scenarios in a systematic way.

  III: Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table. A column of a decision table represents a unique combination of condition entries and action entries. Several test cases can be selected for each column by varying

  other input values or expected results that are not part of the decision table. The following statements about decision tables are false:

  I" Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items. Decision tables are not related to risk level, but rather to complexity level. Decision tables are generated for test items that have complex logic or multiple conditions and

  actions that need to be tested.

  IV: The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally. The conditions in the decision table represent both positive and negative tests, depending on whether they are valid or invalid inputs for the test item. Verified

  References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 4, page 42-43.