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FINRA-SIE Real Exam Questions

FINRA Securities Industry Essentials (SIE)

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Question 1 Single choice

A lien was filed against the property of a registered representative (RR) for their failure to pay a contractor for home remodeling work.

Which of the following items is the RR's broker-dealer (BD) required to file to reflect the lien, and within how many days of learning about the lien must the BD file?

  1. A

    Form U4 within 30 days

  2. B

    Form BD within 60 days

  3. C

    A new fingerprint card within 20 days

  4. D

    The FINRA Rule 4530 complaint report within 45 days

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A

Explanation

A lien against a registered person is a reportable financial event that must be disclosed on the individual's registration record. The mechanism for updating that record is an amended Form U4, and firms are required to update Form U4 disclosures promptly (commonly tested as within 30 days after the firm learns of the event). Therefore, the correct answer is A. Form U4 is the Uniform Application for Securities Industry Registration or Transfer and is used not only for initial registration but also for ongoing updates to disclosure items, including certain financial matters such as liens, judgments, and bankruptcies when required.
Choice B is incorrect because Form BD is the broker-dealer's registration form (the firm's registration), used for firm-level changes and disclosures. A lien filed against an individual RR is not handled by updating the broker-dealer's Form BD.
Choice C is incorrect because fingerprinting requirements relate to identity / background checks and are not the reporting mechanism for financial liens.

Choice D is incorrect because FINRA Rule 4530 generally concerns reporting of certain events such as regulatory actions, violations, and specified misconduct; a personal lien is addressed through the
representative's disclosure updates rather than being a "customer complaint report" filing. (Also, the question's "complaint report" phrasing is a distractor-liens are not customer complaints.) On the SIE, the point is recognizing where disclosures live (Form U4 for associated persons) and the expectation that firms supervise and update registration records when reportable events occur.

Question 2 Single choice

Which of the following rates is subject to the most frequent changes?

  1. A

    Prime

  2. B

    Call loan

  3. C

    Discount

  4. D

    Federal funds

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Explanation

The federal funds rate, which is the interest rate banks charge each other for overnight loans, changes frequently due to daily fluctuations in bank reserves and market conditions. D is correct as it is the most sensitive to short-term market forces.
A, B, and C change less frequently.
References:
SIE Study Guide, Chapter 2: Interest Rates

Question 3 Single choice

An investor holds 1,000 shares of a stock with a total cost basis of $5,000 in his account when a 1-for-5 reverse stock split is announced.

What will be the investor's total cost basis after the payable date of the reverse split?

  1. A

    $1,000

  2. B

    $2,500

  3. C

    $5,000

  4. D

    $25,000

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Explanation

Cost Basis in Reverse Split: The total cost basis remains unchanged in a reverse stock split. Only the number of shares and price per share adjust.
Pre-Split: 1,000 shares at $5 each = $5,000.
Post-Split: 200 shares at $25 each = $5,000.

Incorrect Options:
A, B, and D: Do not reflect the unchanged total cost basis.

IRS Guidance on Stock Splits: IRS Stock Split Info.

Question 4 Single choice

A registered representative must complete which of the following activities when entering a discretionary trade?

  1. A

    Only exercise discretion over market orders

  2. B

    Indicate that discretion was exercised on the order ticket to be identified for supervisory review

  3. C

    Obtain authorization from the customer before each discretionary order is entered

  4. D

    Receive instructions from the customer as to the price at which to buy or sell a security

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

Explanation

FINRA Rule 3260 requires that discretionary trades be approved by the customer in writing and reviewed by the supervising firm. The order ticket must indicate that discretion was exercised to ensure proper oversight. B is correct because marking the order ticket ensures compliance with supervisory requirements. A is incorrect because discretionary authority is not limited to market orders. C is incorrect as discretionary trades do not require pre-approval for each trade but require prior written authorization. D is incorrect because discretionary authority allows the RR to decide on price and timing without specific customer instructions.

References:
FINRA Rule 3260 (Discretionary Accounts)

Question 5 Single choice

Which of the following securities has the greatest investment risk?

  1. A

    Blue chip stocks

  2. B

    Corporate bonds

  3. C

    Technology stocks

  4. D

    Government bonds

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Explanation

Technology stocks are considered high-risk investments due to their volatility and sensitivity to economic cycles, regulatory changes, and technological advancements. While they may offer significant growth potential, they carry greater risk than blue chip stocks, corporate bonds, or government bonds. C is correct because technology stocks are subject to high volatility and risk. A is incorrect because blue chip stocks are generally stable and lower-risk. B is incorrect because corporate bonds carry moderate risk, depending on the issuer's creditworthiness. D is incorrect because government bonds are considered low-risk due to the backing of the issuing government.
References:
SIE Study Guide, Chapter 6: Investment Risks

Question 6 Single choice

The provision that allows a bond issuer to purchase bonds from customers prior to the maturity date on the bond is known as a:

  1. A

    Put

  2. B

    Call

  3. C

    Conversion

  4. D

    Defeasement

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

Explanation

Call Provision: This allows the issuer to redeem bonds before their maturity date, usually at a premium to the par value, which benefits the issuer in a declining interest rate environment. Put Provision: Allows bondholders, not issuers, to sell the bond back to the issuer. Conversion: Relates to convertible bonds that can be converted into equity. Defeasement: Refers to the removal of a bond issuer's obligation by setting aside cash or securities to cover the debt.

SEC Guide on Callable Bonds: SEC Callable Bonds.

Question 7 Single choice

Which of the following products provides both insurance protection and investment exposure?

  1. A

    Term life insurance

  2. B

    Fixed annuity

  3. C

    Variable annuity

  4. D

    Certificate of deposit

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Explanation

Variable annuities combine insurance features with investment subaccounts, causing values to fluctuate with market performance.
References:
SIE Study Guide, Insurance Products

Question 8 Single choice

Which of the following responses describes the purpose for a financial institution to provide a privacy policy to customers?

  1. A

    To regulate the collection and protection of customers' public information

  2. B

    To provide transparency regarding the potential use of customers' nonpublic personal information

  3. C

    To acquire additional information about customers' assets and holdings for future solicitation and investing

  4. D

    To automatically remove any state law provision to the opt-in or opt-out feature regarding customers' nonpublic information

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

Explanation

The primary purpose of delivering a privacy policy is to provide customers with clear disclosure about how a financial institution may collect, use, share, and safeguard nonpublic personal information (NPI) and what choices customers may have regarding sharing. That makes B correct. Under privacy requirements such as Regulation S-P (commonly tested on the SIE), firms must inform customers about their privacy practices and provide required notices so customers understand how their personal information is handled.
Choice A is incorrect because privacy policies are not primarily about "public information"; the regulatory focus is on nonpublic personal information, such as account numbers, balances, transaction history, social security numbers, and other sensitive data.

Choice C is incorrect because the purpose is not to gather more information for marketing or solicitation;
it's to disclose practices and protect customer information.

Choice D is incorrect because privacy policies do not automatically override state laws; privacy regulation involves both federal requirements and, in some cases, state provisions, and firms must comply with applicable laws rather than "removing" them.

On the SIE, you should connect privacy policy delivery to three ideas: (1) disclosure of information-sharing practices, (2) customer rights (such as opt-out where applicable), and (3) safeguards-the firm's obligation to protect confidential customer information. This aligns with broader customer protection standards and the regulatory framework governing broker-dealer handling of client data.

Question 9 Single choice

Which of the following types of stock refers to the maximum number of shares a corporation is legally permitted to issue, as specified in its articles of incorporation?

  1. A

    Issued stock

  2. B

    Treasury stock

  3. C

    Restricted stock

  4. D

    Authorized stock

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Explanation

Authorized stock is the maximum number of shares a corporation is legally permitted to issue under its corporate charter (articles of incorporation). That is why choice D is correct. The authorized share count is established when the company is formed and can typically be changed later only through proper corporate procedures (often requiring board approval and shareholder approval, depending on jurisdiction and governing documents). The purpose is to define the company's legal capacity to issue shares for capital raising, compensation plans, acquisitions, and other corporate needs. Choice A, issued stock, refers to shares that have actually been sold/issued by the corporation to shareholders. Issued shares are always less than or equal to authorized shares.

Choice B, treasury stock, refers to shares that were previously issued and outstanding but have been repurchased by the corporation and are held in the company's treasury; treasury shares are not
outstanding and typically have no voting rights or dividend rights while held by the issuer.

Choice C, restricted stock, refers to shares subject to resale restrictions (often associated with Rule 144 or insider/control stock concepts), not the legal maximum number of shares. This question is a straightforward corporate equity definition commonly tested on the SIE because it links to shareholder rights, corporate actions, and capitalization structure. Candidates should clearly distinguish: Authorized = legal limit the company may issue Issued = shares the company has sold/issued Outstanding
= issued minus treasury (shares held by public) Treasury = repurchased shares held by the issuer Understanding these terms helps when analyzing corporate filings, dilution, and equity financing decisions.

Question 10 Single choice

According to FINRA rules, under which of the following circumstances, if any, is a member firm permitted to send gifts to a registered representative of another member firm?

  1. A

    Under no circumstances

  2. B

    When the value of all gifts during a period of one year does not exceed $100

  3. C

    When no single gift exceeds $100 and there is no limit on the number of gifts

  4. D

    When no single gift exceeds $100 in value and the maximum value of all gifts per year equals $250

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

Explanation

FINRA Rule 3220: This rule limits gifts to $100 per person annually to prevent conflicts of interest.

Aggregate Limit: There is no provision for exceeding the $100 annual limit, regardless of the number of gifts.

Purpose: The rule ensures that gifts do not influence decisions or create unethical relationships.

FINRA Rule 3220 (Influencing or Rewarding Employees of Others): FINRA Rule 3220.