EMC E22-265 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

EMC E22-265 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 31:

  In ViPR SRM, for what conditions can alerts be defined to detect and notify?

  A. When Array capacity thresholds are exceeded
  B. If Disks in an array fail
  C. When an array automatically contacts the vendor for support
  D. When an array service processor is down
  A. When Array capacity thresholds are exceeded

• Question 32:

  What information is shown in the Backend Temp Files Count Check report?

  A. The number of files waiting to be inserted in the database
  B. Shows that the Backend host is stopped and the file data is stale
  C. The CPU load, memory utilization, and file IOPS on the Backend
  D. The capacity utilization of the Backend filesystems
  A. The number of files waiting to be inserted in the database

• Question 33:

  After ViPR SRM was installed, you noticed that the UI did not display the default reports, even though the EMC Watch4net Health SolutionPack is installed. What could be causing this problem?

  A. Host Resolution is not configured properly
  B. DNS PTR is not configured
  C. Default ReportPack is not installed
  D. IP address was used to configure the Solution Pack
  A. Host Resolution is not configured properly

• Question 34:

  Which log level provides the highest level of detail?

  A. FINE
  B. INFO
  C. WARNING
  D. CONFIG
  A. FINE

• Question 35:

  What is the purpose of push-tagging-data.sh?

  A. It allows you to send data from an external source to the WS Accessor using SOAP messages.
  B. It allows you to retrieve data from an external source to the WS Accessor using SOAP messages.
  C. It allows you to query data from an external source to the WS Accessor using SOAP messages.
  D. It allows you to retrieve data from an external source to the WS Accessor using RESTAPI.
  A. It allows you to send data from an external source to the WS Accessor using SOAP messages.

• Question 36:

  How many metrics can a Backend support?

  A. 1.5 million
  B. 1.2 million
  C. 1 million
  D. 750,000
  A. 1.5 million

• Question 37:

  Which three ViPR SRM categories characterize ViPR SRM?

  A. Visualize, Analyze, Optimize
  B. Configuration, Utilization, Analysis
  C. SLA Management, Chargeback, Compliance
  D. Performance, Planning, Chargeback
  A. Visualize, Analyze, Optimize

• Question 38:

  Upon completion of installation of a Brocade SolutionPack you want notifications to be forwarded to a centralized management system for ticketing purposes. What action needs to be performed?

  A. Edit Alert Consolidation Trap Notification rule to set destination host
  B. Request that management system administrator configure the management system to accept traps sent from the Alerting Module
  C. Configure firewall rule set to allow Alerting Module to send traps to centralized management system
  D. Nothing is required; this process is handled by the Brocade SolutionPack installer
  A. Edit Alert Consolidation Trap Notification rule to set destination host

• Question 39:

  Which ViPR SRM report defines service levels based on array model type, disk interface technology, RAID type, disk size, FAST policy, and also tracks host application Service Levels?

  A. Capacity Planning
  B. Configuration Compliance
  C. Impact Analysis
  D. Service Assurance
  A. Capacity Planning

• Question 40:

  What type of compute infrastructure is required for a ViPR SRM 4-VM vApp deployment in a clustered environment?

  A. VMware ESX cluster with DRS enabled
  B. Any Hypervisor from VMware, Microsoft, Citrix or OpenStack
  C. VMware ESX cluster with DPM enabled
  D. VMware ESX cluster
  D. VMware ESX cluster