CompTIA CV0-004 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CV0-004 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 421:

  A systems administrator created several new VMs on a private cloud and wants to ensure the new baseline still meets corporate guidelines. The administrator finds the following new load numbers on the hosts:

  

  If corporate policy requires N+1 host capacity, which of the following metrics is MOST likely to present a problem?

  A. CPU
  B. RAM
  C. DISK
  D. NETWORK
  C. DISK

• Question 422:

  Which of the following will best reduce the cost of running workloads while maintaining the same performance? (Select two).

  A. Instance size
  B. Tagging
  C. Reserved resources model
  D. Spot instance model
  E. Pay-as-you-go model
  F. Dedicated host model
  C. Reserved resources model
  D. Spot instance model

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  Explanation

  The Reserved resources model offers cost savings for committed use over a long term, which can reduce costs while maintaining performance for predictable workloads. The Spot instance model allows users to take advantage of unused capacity at lower prices, offering significant cost savings, though with the possibility of instances being terminated when demand rises. Both models can be strategically used to optimize costs without compromising performance.

• Question 423:

  The change control board received a request to approve a configuration change 10 deploy in the cloud production environment.

  Which of the following should have already been competed?

  A. Penetration test
  B. End-to-end security testing
  C. Cost benefit analysis
  D. User acceptance testing
  D. User acceptance testing

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  Explanation

  Before a configuration change is deployed in the cloud production environment, it is crucial to conduct User Acceptance Testing (UAT). UAT involves testing the system by the end-users or clients to ensure it can handle required tasks in real-world scenarios, according to specifications. This testing is the final stage before the change is approved for production, ensuring that all functionalities meet user requirements and the system is ready for deployment.

  References:

  The CompTIA Cloud+ certification highlights the significance of various testing phases, including UAT, as part of the cloud deployment process to validate the system's readiness and functionality for end-users.

• Question 424:

  A cloud administrator who is troubleshooting DNS issues discovers zone transfers are not occurring between the primary and secondary name servers due to an error in the serial numbers.

  Which of the following records should the administrator query for the serial number?

  A. PTR
  B. TXT
  C. SOA
  D. SRV
  C. SOA

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  Explanation

  SOA stands for Start of Authority, and it is a type of DNS record that contains information about a DNS zone, such as the name of the primary name server, the email address of the zone administrator, the serial number of the zone, and other parameters. The serial number is used to indicate when a zone has been updated, and it is incremented by the primary name server whenever a change is made to the zone data.

  The secondary name servers use the serial number to determine if they need to request a zone transfer from the primary name server to synchronize their data.

  References:

  [CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide], page 207.

• Question 425:

  A user reports that a cloud application has been behaving erratically over the last month.

  Which of the following should a cloud engineer use to get a clear understanding of the situation?

  A. System alerts
  B. Intrusion prevention system
  C. Network logs
  D. Performance metrics
  D. Performance metrics

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  Explanation

  Performance metrics provide historical and real-time data about application behavior, including resource utilization, response times, throughput, and error rates. Since the issue has been occurring over the last month, analyzing performance metrics is the best way to identify trends, anomalies, and potential causes of the erratic behavior over time.

• Question 426:

  A cloud engineer needs to enable monitoring on a virtual machine instance within a cloud service provider.

  The engineer must monitor the resources related to the amount of memory an application is utilizing.

  Which of the following metrics should the engineer monitor for memory as it relates to disk performance?

  A. Heap utilization
  B. Swap usage
  C. IOPS consumption
  D. Queue depth
  B. Swap usage

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  Explanation

  Swap usage reflects how much memory pressure is causing the system to use disk space as virtual memory.

  This directly ties memory utilization to disk performance, making it the correct metric to monitor in this scenario.

• Question 427:

  A software development team would like to test a new feature that was added to the company's production website. The team would like to allow access to only a small number of users and then, in a controlled way, slowly increase the number of users who have access to the feature.

  Which of the following best describes the deployment strategy the software development team should use?

  A. In-place
  B. Blue-green
  C. Canary
  D. Rolling
  C. Canary

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  Explanation

  A canary deployment gradually exposes a new feature to a small subset of users before expanding access, allowing controlled testing and minimizing risk.

• Question 428:

  A cloud engineer is updating a company's Git system that is currently hosted on version 7.1 of a VM. To avoid potential breaking changes, only the latest minor updates are allowed.

  Which of the following versions should the engineer update the Git system to?

  A. 6.5
  B. 7.6
  C. 7.9
  D. 8.1
  C. 7.9

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  Explanation

  The system is currently on version 7.1, and the requirement is to apply only the latest minor updates while avoiding potential breaking changes. Updating to version 7.9 keeps the system within the same major version (7.x) while providing the latest available minor release. This approach minimizes compatibility risks compared to moving to a new major version.

• Question 429:

  A development team recently completed testing changes to a company's web-based CMS in the sandbox environment. The cloud administrator deployed these CMS application changes to the staging environment as part of the next phase in the release life cycle. The deployment was successful, but after deploying the CMS application, the web page displays an error message stating the application is unavailable. After reviewing the application logs, the administrator sees an error message that the CMS is unable to connect to the database.

  Which of the following is the BEST action for the cloud administrator to perform to resolve the issue?

  A. Modify the deployment script to delete and recreate the database whenever the CMS application is deployed.
  B. Modify the ACL to allow the staging environment to access the database in the sandbox environment.
  C. Modify the CMS application deployment to use the previous version and redeploy the application.
  D. Modify the configuration settings of the CMS application to connect to the database in the current environment.
  D. Modify the configuration settings of the CMS application to connect to the database in the current environment.

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  Explanation

  Modifying the configuration settings of the CMS (Content Management System) application to connect to the database in the current environment is what the cloud administrator should do to resolve the issue of web page displaying an error message stating the application is unavailable after deploying CMS application changes to the staging environment. A CMS is a software or platform that allows users to create, manage, and publish web content. A CMS may use a database to store and retrieve web content and information. A staging environment is a testing or pre-production environment that simulates the production environment and allows users to verify and validate changes or updates before deploying them to production. Modifying the configuration settings of the CMS application can help to resolve the issue by ensuring that the CMS application can access and communicate with the database in the current environment, rather than using the previous or default settings that may point to a different or non-existent database.

• Question 430:

  SIMULATION

  A company hosts various containerized applications for business uses. A client reports that one of its routine business applications fails to load the web-based login prompt hosted in the company cloud.

  Click on each device and resource. Review the configurations, logs, and characteristics of each node in the architecture to diagnose the issue. Then, make the necessary changes to the WAF configuration to remediate the issue.

  

  

  

  

  

  

  A. See the Explanation below for solution.
  B. PlaceHolder
  C. PlaceHolder
  D. PlaceHolder
  A. See the Explanation below for solution.

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  Explanation

  From the image, it's noticeable that some finance application rules are set to "Block" traffic. If the client's issue is with a finance-related application not loading the login prompt, these rules could be the cause.

  The rule with ID 1005, labeled "Finance application 1", is configured to allow access to "webapp1" for finance-related paths. However, rule 1006, labeled "Finance application 2", is set to block access to "webapp1" for login-related paths. To remediate the issue based on the WAF configuration you have provided, you would want to:

  Ensure that the correct paths to the finance application are allowed through the WAF.

  Modify any rules that are incorrectly blocking access to the application. If the client's problem is specifically with the login prompt, then rule 1006 seems the most likely culprit. Changing the action from "Block" to "Allow" for rule 1006 could potentially resolve the client's issue. The rule should be carefully reviewed and updatedto ensure legitimate traffic is not being blocked while still protecting against unauthorized access.