CompTIA CV0-004 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CV0-004 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 391:

  A cloud engineer wants to implement a monitoring solution to detect cryptojacking and other cryptomining malware on cloud instances.

  Which of the following metrics would most likely be used to identify the activity?

  A. Disk I/O
  B. Network packets
  C. Average memory utilization
  D. Percent of CPU utilization
  D. Percent of CPU utilization

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  Explanation

  To detect cryptojacking and other cryptomining malware on cloud instances, monitoring the percent of CPU utilization is most effective. Cryptomining malware typically consumes a significant amount of CPU resources for mining operations, leading to unusually high CPU usage. Monitoring and analyzing CPU utilization metrics can help identify instances of cryptojacking by highlighting abnormal levels of resource consumption.

  References:

  Understanding management and technical operations in cloud environments, as outlined in the CompTIA Cloud+ objectives, includes the use of monitoring solutions to detect and respond to security threats like cryptomining malware, ensuring the integrity and performance of cloud resources.

• Question 392:

  Which of the following technologies helps secure public-facing API endpoints?

  A. DDoS protection
  B. Vulnerability scanning
  C. Data loss prevention
  D. Intrusion detection systems
  A. DDoS protection

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  Explanation

  Public-facing API endpoints are common targets for Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attacks. DDoS protection helps secure these endpoints by detecting and mitigating malicious traffic, ensuring the APIs remain available and responsive to legitimate users.

• Question 393:

  A large financial corporation experienced a data breach. An investigation reveals that the attacker infiltrated the firewall via a vulnerability and accessed different servers within the network.

  Which of the following security controls should the cloud security team implement to prevent future breaches like this one?

  A. An MFA solution
  B. An IDS
  C. A Zero Trust architecture
  D. A NAC
  C. A Zero Trust architecture

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  Explanation

  A Zero Trust architecture assumes that no user, device, or network segment should be trusted by default. It enforces continuous verification, least-privilege access, and network segmentation, limiting an attacker's ability to move laterally between systems after an initial compromise. In this scenario, even if the firewall were breached, Zero Trust controls would help prevent access to other servers and reduce the overall impact of the intrusion.

• Question 394:

  Users have been reporting that a remotely hosted application is not accessible following a recent migration.

  However, the cloud administrator is able to access the application from the same site as the users.

  Which of the following should the administrator update?

  A. Cipher suite
  B. Network ACL
  C. Routing table
  D. Permissions
  C. Routing table

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  Explanation

  Since the cloud administrator can access the application from the same site but users cannot, it suggests a possible issue with the network routing. The routing table may need to be updated to ensure that traffic from the users' location is correctly directed to the new location of the remotely hosted application after the migration.

  References:

  CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide by Glen E. Clarke.

• Question 395:

  A cloud administrator needs to implement a mechanism to monitor the expense of the company's cloud resources.

  Which of the following is the BEST option to execute this task with minimal effort?

  A. Ask the cloud provider to send a daily expense report
  B. Set custom notifications for exceeding budget thresholds
  C. Use the API to collect expense information from cloud resources
  D. Implement a financial tool to monitor cloud resource expenses
  B. Set custom notifications for exceeding budget thresholds

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  Explanation

  Setting custom notifications for exceeding budget thresholds is the best option to execute the task of monitoring the expense of the company's cloud resources with minimal effort, as it can automate and simplify the process of tracking and alerting the cloud administrator about any overspending or wastage of cloud resources. Setting custom notifications can also help optimize the cost and performance of cloud resources, as it can enable timely and proactive actions to adjust or optimize the resource allocation or consumption based on the budget limits.

  References:

  CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

• Question 396:

  A company has applications that need to remain available in the event of the data center being unavailable.

  The company's cloud architect needs to find a solution to maintain business continuity.

  Which of following should the company implement?

  A. A DR solution for the application between different data centers
  B. An off-site backup solution with a third-party vendor
  C. laC techniques to recreate the system at a new provider
  D. An HA solution for the application inside the data center
  A. A DR solution for the application between different data centers

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  Explanation

  A disaster recovery (DR) solution is a set of policies, procedures, and tools that enable an organization to restore or continue its critical functions in the event of a natural or human-induced disaster. A DR solution for the application between different data centers means that the application is replicated or backed up to another location that is geographically separated from the primary data center. This way, if the primary data center becomes unavailable due to a power outage, fire, flood, cyberattack, or any other cause, the application can be switched over to the secondary data center and resume its operations with minimal downtime and data loss. This solution ensures business continuity and high availability for the application and its users.

  References:

  CompTIA Cloud+ CV0- 003 Study Guide, Chapter 5: Maintaining a Cloud Environment, page 221-222 Disaster recovery planning guide.

• Question 397:

  A systems administrator is implementing a new version of a company's primary human-resources application. An upgrade will be performed on the production server, as there is no development environment.

  The administrator needs to have a plan in case something goes wrong with the upgrade.

  Which of the following will work best to ensure a quick rollback in case an issue arises?

  A. An application-level backup
  B. A production snapshot
  C. A full backup
  D. A differential backup
  B. A production snapshot

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  Explanation

  A production snapshot is a point-in-time copy of the state and data of a production server or instance. It can be used to restore the server or instance to the exact state it was in when the snapshot was taken, in case of a failure, error, or corruption. A production snapshot can help to ensure a quick rollback in case an issue arises during an application upgrade, as it can revert the changes made by the upgrade and restore the previous version of the application. A production snapshot can also preserve the configuration and settings of the server or instance, as well as the application data and dependencies. A production snapshot is different from a backup, which is a copy of the data only, and may not include the state or configuration of the server or instance.

  References:

  CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Deploying a Cloud Environment, page 75- 76 Snapshots vs Backups: Key Differences and Similarities.

• Question 398:

  An administrator needs to adhere to the following requirements when moving a customer's data to the cloud:

  1. The new service must be geographically dispersed.

  2. The customer should have local access to data

  3. Legacy applications should be accessible.

  Which of the following cloud deployment models is most suitable?

  A. On-premises
  B. Private
  C. Hybrid
  D. Public
  C. Hybrid

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  Explanation

  A hybrid cloud deployment model is most suitable given the requirements. This model combines on-premises infrastructure (or private cloud) with public cloud services, providing geographic dispersion while allowing local access to data. It also facilitates the use of legacy applications that might not be well-suited for a full public cloud environment.

  References:

  The hybrid model is a fundamental concept within the CompTIA Cloud+ curriculum, under the section of Cloud Concepts, that explains deployment models.

• Question 399:

  A new application that will be deployed to cloud VMs has the following requirements: Low inter-VM latency Horizontal scaling support 98.5% availability 8vCPU and 16GB Ability to split jobs across VMs.

  Which of the following will best meet these requirements?

  A. Load balanced 2vCPU with 4GB RAM on multiregion
  B. Load balanced 4vCPU with 8GB RAM on single availability zone
  C. Load balanced 2vCPU with 4GB RAM on multiple availability zones
  D. Single 8vCPU with 16GB RAM VM on single availability zone
  C. Load balanced 2vCPU with 4GB RAM on multiple availability zones

• Question 400:

  A cloud engineer is troubleshooting RSA key-based authentication from a local computer to a cloud-based server, which is running SSH service on a default port. The following file permissions are set on the authorized keys file:

  -rw-rw-rw-1 ubuntu ubuntu 391 Mar S 01:36 authorized_keys

  Which of the following security practices are the required actions the engineer Should take to gain access to the server?

  (Select TWO).

  A. Fix the file permissions with execute permissions to the owner of the file.
  B. Open port 21 access for the computer's public IP address.
  C. Fix the file permissions with read-only access to the owner Of the file.
  D. Open port 22 access for the computer's public IP address.
  E. Open port 21 access for 0.0.0.0/0 CIDR.
  F. open port 22 access for 0.0.0.0/0 CIDR.
  A. Fix the file permissions with execute permissions to the owner of the file.
  D. Open port 22 access for the computer's public IP address.