CompTIA CV0-004 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CV0-004 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 151:

  A small marketing company recently moved all of its storage to a cloud provider. The budget for storage has limited the company to buying a small amount of SSD storage and a lot of spinning disks. The storage administrator needs to find a way to optimize this environment to realize maximum speed.

  Which of the following would best achieve this?

  A. Compression
  B. Automated storage tiering
  C. Deduplication
  D. Autoscaling
  B. Automated storage tiering

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  Explanation

  Automated storage tiering is a technique used to optimize storage performance by automatically moving data between different tiers of storage based on its access frequency and importance. In this scenario, since the company has limited SSD storage and a lot of spinning disks due to budget constraints, implementing automated storage tiering would allow frequently accessed and critical data to be stored on the faster SSD storage, while less frequently accessed data can be stored on the slower spinning disks. This would maximize speed for critical operations while efficiently utilizing the available resources.

• Question 152:

  Which of the following strategies will mitigate the risk of a zero-day vulnerability MOST efficiently?

  A. Using only open-source technologies
  B. Keeping all resources up to date
  C. Creating a standby environment with a different cloud provider
  D. Having a detailed incident response plan
  D. Having a detailed incident response plan

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  Explanation

  An incident response plan is a document or procedure that defines the roles, responsibilities, and actions to be taken in the event of a security incident or breach. Having a detailed incident response plan can help mitigate the risk of a zero- day vulnerability most efficiently, as it can provide a clear and consistent framework for identifying, containing, analyzing, and resolving any potential threats or exploits related to the unknown or unpatched vulnerability. Having a detailed incident response plan can also help minimize the impact and damage of a security incident or breach, as it can enable timely and effective recovery and restoration processes.

  References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

• Question 153:

  The change control board received a request to approve a configuration change 10 deploy in the cloud production environment. Which of the following should have already been competed?

  A. Penetration test
  B. End-to-end security testing
  C. Cost benefit analysis
  D. User acceptance testing
  D. User acceptance testing

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  Explanation

  Before a configuration change is deployed in the cloud production environment, it is crucial to conduct User Acceptance Testing (UAT). UAT involves testing the system by the end-users or clients to ensure it can handle required tasks in real- world scenarios, according to specifications. This testing is the final stage before the change is approved for production, ensuring that all functionalities meet user requirements and the system is ready for deployment.References: The CompTIA Cloud+ certification highlights the significance of various testing phases, including UAT, as part of the cloud deployment process to validate the system's readiness and functionality for end-users.

• Question 154:

  A high-priority negative risk triggers a risk indicator, but the issue has not yet occurred. What should the project team do next?

  A. Execute the contingency plan
  B. Perform a workaround
  C. Escalate to senior management
  D. Assign a risk owner
  A. Execute the contingency plan

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  Explanation

• Question 155:

  A company operates a website that allows customers to upload, share, and retain full ownership of their photographs. Which of the following could affect image ownership as the website's usage expands globally?

  A. Sovereignty
  B. Data classification
  C. Litigation holds
  D. Retention
  A. Sovereignty

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  Explanation

  Data sovereignty refers to the legal implications of storing data in a country, subject to that country's laws. As the website's usage expands globally, data sovereignty becomes a critical concern because laws governing data ownership, privacy, and rights can vary significantly from one jurisdiction to another, potentially affecting the users' ownership rights over their photographs.

• Question 156:

  A company wants to optimize cloud resources and lower the overhead caused by managing multiple operating systems. Which of the following compute resources would be best to help to achieve this goal?

  A. VM
  B. Containers
  C. Remote desktops
  D. Bare-metal servers
  B. Containers

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  Explanation

  Containers are the best compute resources to optimize cloud resources and lower the overhead caused by managing multiple operating systems. Containers encapsulate applications and their dependencies into a single executable package, running on a shared OS kernel, which reduces the need for separate operating systems for each application and simplifies resource management.References: CompTIA Cloud+ materials discuss management and technical operations in cloud environments, including the use of containers to improve resource utilization and operational efficiency by minimizing the overhead associated with traditional VMs.

• Question 157:

  A systems administrator is configuring network management but is concerned about confidentiality.

  Which of the following should the administrator configure to address this concern?

  A. Community strings
  B. IPSec tunnels
  C. ACLs
  D. SNMPv3
  D. SNMPv3

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  Explanation

  SNMPv3 is the protocol that the administrator should configure to address the concern about confidentiality for network management. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a standard protocol that allows network devices and systems to exchange information and perform management tasks. SNMPv3 is the latest version of SNMP that provides security enhancements, such as authentication, encryption, and access control, to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of network data.

• Question 158:

  A technician receives an email from a vendor who is requesting payment of an invoice for human resources services. The email contains a request for bank account numbers. Which of the following types of attacks does this behavior most likely indicate?

  A. MaIware
  B. Cryptojacking
  C. Ransomware
  D. Phishing
  D. Phishing

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  Explanation

  The behavior described in the question indicates a phishing attack. Phishing typically involves an attacker masquerading as a legitimate entity to trick individuals into providing sensitive information, such as bank account numbers, through seemingly trustworthy communication channels like email.References: Understanding security concerns and measures is part of the Governance, Risk, Compliance, and Security domain of the CompTIA Cloud+ objectives.

• Question 159:

  Department supervisors have requested a report that will help them understand the utilization of cloud resources, make decisions about budgeting for the following year, and reduce costs.

  Which of the following are the most important requisite steps to create the report? (Select two).

  A. Set the desired retention of resource logs.
  B. Configure application tracing.
  C. Integrate email alerts with ticketing software.
  D. Enable resource tagging.
  E. Configure the collection of performance/utilization logs.
  F. Configure metric threshold alerts.
  D. Enable resource tagging.
  E. Configure the collection of performance/utilization logs.

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  Explanation

  To create a report that helps understand the utilization of cloud resources, make budget decisions, and reduce costs, the most important steps are to enable resource tagging and configure the collection of performance/utilization logs. Resource tagging helps in categorizing and tracking costs by associating tags with resources, while performance/utilization logs are essential for analyzing resource usage over time. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (Exam CV0- 004) - Chapter on Cloud Management

• Question 160:

  A systems administrator is implementing a new version of a company's primary human- resources application. An upgrade will be performed on the production server, as there is no development environment. The administrator needs to have a plan in case something goes wrong with the upgrade.

  Which of the following will work best to ensure a quick rollback in case an issue arises?

  A. An application-level backup
  B. A production snapshot
  C. A full backup
  D. A differential backup
  B. A production snapshot

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  Explanation

  A production snapshot is a point-in-time copy of the state and data of a production server or instance. It can be used to restore the server or instance to the exact state it was in when the snapshot was taken, in case of a failure, error, or corruption. A production snapshot can help to ensure a quick rollback in case an issue arises during an application upgrade, as it can revert the changes made by the upgrade and restore the previous version of the application. A production snapshot can also preserve the configuration and settings of the server or instance, as well as the application data and dependencies. A production snapshot is different from a backup, which is a copy of the data only, and may not include the state or configuration of the server or instance.

  References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Deploying a Cloud Environment, page 75- 76; Snapshots vs Backups: Key Differences and Similarities.