CompTIA CV0-004 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CV0-004 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 151:

  Users report that in-house developed software has performance issues and behaves in unexpected ways following a recent update. The developers investigate and find buffer overflows and broken authentications.

  Which of the following best describes what caused this issue?

  A. Leaked credentials
  B. Poor coding practices
  C. Cipher suite depreciation
  D. Incompatible hardware
  B. Poor coding practices

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  Explanation

  Buffer overflows and broken authentication mechanisms result from insecure or improper coding practices.

  These vulnerabilities arise when developers fail to implement secure coding standards, leading to performance and security issues after updates.

• Question 152:

  Which of the following does an engineer need in order to calculate the number of IOPS required in a storage resource?

  A. Network capacity
  B. Block size
  C. Memory utilization
  D. Latency
  D. Latency

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  Explanation

  Latency is required to calculate IOPS because IOPS is determined by how many input/output operations can be completed per second, which is directly dependent on the time each operation takes.

• Question 153:

  A cloud-based application needs to connect to a legacy, on-premises application but fails to create a secure connection.

  Which of the following is the most likely reason that the application cannot connect?

  A. The cloud application is throttling the API
  B. The cloud application is changing the DNS during connection
  C. The on-premises application cannot communicate to the NAT
  D. The on-premises application is using depreciated ciphers
  D. The on-premises application is using depreciated ciphers

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  Explanation

  Legacy on-premises applications often use outdated or deprecated encryption ciphers and protocols that are no longer considered secure. Modern cloud applications and services typically reject connections that do not meet current security standards, causing secure connection attempts to fail when incompatible ciphers are used.

• Question 154:

  A company's data must be recoverable in other regions of the world in the event of a disaster. The data must be available in an RPO of one hour.

  Which of the following should a cloud administrator apply to meet these requirements?

  A. Replication
  B. Retention
  C. Encryption
  D. Schedule
  A. Replication

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  Explanation

  Replication involves copying data from one location to another, often in different regions, to ensure high availability and disaster recovery capabilities. By setting up replication, the company can ensure that its data is available in other regions in the event of a disaster, and that it can meet the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of one hour. This ensures that the data is backed up continuously or in near real-time, so the most recent copy is available even if a disaster occurs.

• Question 155:

  A list of CVEs was identified on a web server. The systems administrator decides to close the ports and disable weak TLS ciphers.

  Which of the following describes this vulnerability management stage?

  A. Scanning
  B. Identification
  C. Assessment
  D. Remediation
  D. Remediation

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  Explanation

  Closing the ports and disabling weak TLS ciphers as a response to a list of identified CVEs (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) describes the vulnerability management stage of 'remediation'. This stage involves taking actions to resolve vulnerabilities and mitigate potential risks.

  References:

  Vulnerability management stages, including remediation efforts, are a key aspect of the security measures discussed in CompTIA Cloud+.

• Question 156:

  A company uses containers to implement a web application. The development team completed internal testing of a new feature and is ready to move the feature to the production environment.

  Which of the following deployment models would best meet the company's needs while minimizing cost and targeting a specific subset of its users?

  A. Canary
  B. Blue-green
  C. Rolling
  D. In-place
  A. Canary

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  Explanation

  The canary deployment model is an approach where a new feature or service is rolled out to a small subset of users before being deployed widely. This method allows the company to test the impact of the new feature in the production environment with a limited scope, minimizing risk and potential cost implications if issues arise. This approach contrasts with blue-green deployments, which involve switching between two identical environments; rolling deployments, which gradually update all instances; and in- place deployments, which update the current environment. The canary model is particularly suited for targeting specific user groups and gathering feedback before a full rollout.

• Question 157:

  Which of the following resources brings content near a geographic location for faster access?

  A. Cloud bursting
  B. Region
  C. Edge computing
  D. Availability zone
  C. Edge computing

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  Explanation

  Edge computing places resources and content closer to the geographic location of users, reducing latency and enabling faster access compared to centralized cloud resources.

• Question 158:

  A company recently set up a CDN for its photography and image-sharing website.

  Which of the following is the most likely reason for the company's action?

  A. To eliminate storage costs
  B. To improve site speed
  C. To enhance security of static assets
  D. To prevent unauthorized access
  B. To improve site speed

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  Explanation

  The most likely reason for setting up a Content Delivery Network (CDN) is to improve site speed, especially for a photography and image-sharing website. CDNs cache content at edge locations closer to end-users, significantly reducing load times for static assets like images and videos. This enhancement in speed can improve user experience and site performance.

  References:

  CompTIA Cloud+ resources and CDN functionality

• Question 159:

  A security team recently hired multiple interns who all need the same level of access.

  Which of the following controls should the security team implement to provide access to the cloud environment with the least amount of overhead?

  A. MFA
  B. Discretionary access
  C. Local user access
  D. Group-based access control
  D. Group-based access control

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  Explanation

  Implementing group-based access control is the most efficient way to provide access to multiple interns who require the same level of access. This method allows the security team to assign permissions to a group rather than to individual user accounts, thereby reducing the administrative overhead involved in managing access rights for each intern individually.

  References:

  CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Study Guide (Exam CV0- 004) by Scott Wilson and Eric Vanderburg

• Question 160:

  Which of the following is the most cost-effective way to store data that is infrequently accessed?

  A. Cold site
  B. Hot site
  C. Off-site
  D. Warm site
  C. Off-site

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  Explanation

  The most cost-effective way to store data that is infrequently accessed is typically an off-site storage service, often referred to as cold or archival storage. This type of storage is designed for data that is rarely accessed, providing lower storage costs.

  References:

  Data storage solutions and their cost implications, including off-site (cold or archival) storage for infrequently accessed data, are part of the cloud storage options discussed in CompTIA Cloud+.