CompTIA CS0-003 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CS0-003 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 61:

  A security analyst finds an application that cannot enforce the organization's password policy. An exception is granted. As a compensating control, all users must confirm that their passwords comply with the organization's policy.

  Which of the following types of compensating controls is the organization using?

  A. Corrective
  B. Managerial
  C. Technical
  D. Detective
  B. Managerial

• Question 62:

  Which of the following describes the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis?

  A. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented.
  B. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting.
  C. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process.
  D. The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event.
  D. The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event.

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  Explanation

  The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event is the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis, as it reflects the main goal and benefit of this problem-solving approach. A root cause analysis (RCA) is a process of discovering the root causes of problems in order to identify appropriate solutions. A root cause is the core issue or factor that sets in motion the entire cause-and-effect chain that leads to the problem. A root cause analysis assumes that it is more effective to systematically prevent and solve underlying issues rather than just treating symptoms or putting out fires. A root cause analysis can be performed using various methods, tools, and techniques that help to uncover the causes of problems, such as events and causal factor analysis, change analysis, barrier analysis, or fishbone diagrams. A root cause analysis can help to improve quality, performance, safety, or efficiency by finding and eliminating the sources of problems. The other options are not as accurate as the root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event, as they do not capture the essence or value of conducting a root cause analysis.

  The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented is a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting timelines can help to establish the sequence of events and actions that led to the problem, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting is also a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting and reporting incidents can help to communicate and share information about problems and solutions, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process is another possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Developing recommendations can help to implement solutions and prevent future problems, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes.

• Question 63:

  During a routine review of DNS logs, a security analyst observes that Host X has been making frequent DNS requests to domains with random alphanumeric strings (e.g.. atd8ekthj.xyz). IPS anomaly rules are blocking these domains. This behavior started shortly after a new software Installation on the host.

  Which of the following should the analyst do first to determine whether Host X has been compromised?

  A. Allow the domains because the DNS requests are part of a misconfigured software update.
  B. Check the software installation logs for errors and reinstall the software.
  C. Block all outbound connections from the host to prevent further DNS queries.
  D. Use threat intelligence to check if the queried domains are associated with legitimate sites.
  D. Use threat intelligence to check if the queried domains are associated with legitimate sites.

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  Explanation

  Most Voted: B

• Question 64:

  A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned that a specific threat actor who is known to target the company's business type may be able to breach the network and remain inside of it for an extended period of time.

  Which of the following techniques should be performed to meet the CISO's goals?

  A. Vulnerability scanning
  B. Adversary emulation
  C. Passive discovery
  D. Bug bounty
  B. Adversary emulation

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  Explanation

  Adversary emulation is a technique that involves mimicking the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of a specific threat actor or group to test the effectiveness of the security controls and incident response capabilities of an organization. Adversary emulation can help identify and address the gaps and weaknesses in the security posture of an organization, as well as improve the readiness and skills of the security team. Adversary emulation can also help measure the dwell time, which is the duration that a threat actor remains undetected inside the network.

  The other options are not the best techniques to meet the CISO's goals. Vulnerability scanning (A) is a technique that involves scanning the network and systems for known vulnerabilities, but it does not simulate a real attack or test the incident response capabilities. Passive discovery ?is a technique that involves collecting information about the network and systems without sending any packets or probes, but it does not identify or exploit any vulnerabilities or test the security controls. Bug bounty (D) is a program that involves rewarding external researchers or hackers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an organization's systems or applications, but it does not focus on a specific threat actor or group.

• Question 65:

  A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing SIEM logs and observes consistent requests originating from an internal host to a blocklisted external server.

  Which of the following best describes the activity that is taking place?

  A. Data exfiltration
  B. Rogue device
  C. Scanning
  D. Beaconing
  D. Beaconing

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  Explanation

  Beaconing is the best term to describe the activity that is taking place, as it refers to the periodic communication between an infected host and a blocklisted external server. Beaconing is a common technique used by malware to establish a connection with a command-and-control (C2) server, which can provide instructions, updates, or exfiltration capabilities to the malware. Beaconing can vary in frequency, duration, and payload, depending on the type and sophistication of the malware. The other terms are not as accurate as beaconing, as they describe different aspects of malicious activity. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a compromised system to an external destination, such as a C2 server or a cloud storage service. Data exfiltration can be a goal or a consequence of malware infection, but it does not necessarily involve blocklisted servers or consistent requests. Rogue device is a device that is connected to a network without authorization or proper security controls. Rogue devices can pose a security risk, as they can introduce malware, bypass firewalls, or access sensitive data. However, rogue devices are not necessarily infected with malware or communicating with blocklisted servers. Scanning is the process of probing a network or a system for vulnerabilities, open ports, services, or other information. Scanning can be performed by legitimate administrators or malicious actors, depending on the intent and authorization. Scanning does not imply consistent requests or blocklisted servers, as it can target any network or system.

• Question 66:

  A security analyst is improving an organization's vulnerability management program. The analyst cross-checks the current reports with the system's infrastructure teams, but the reports do not accurately reflect the current patching levels.

  Which of the following will most likely correct the report errors?

  A. Updating the engine of the vulnerability scanning tool
  B. Installing patches through a centralized system
  C. Configuring vulnerability scans to be credentialed
  D. Resetting the scanning tool's plug-ins to default
  C. Configuring vulnerability scans to be credentialed

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  Explanation

  Credentialed vulnerability scans allow the scanner to log into systems and retrieve accurate information about installed patches and configurations. If the reports do not reflect current patching levels, it is likely that the scan is being performed without credentials, leading to incomplete or inaccurate results.

  Option A (Updating the scanning engine) ensures the tool has the latest detection capabilities but does not directly affect scan accuracy for missing patches.

  Option B (Centralized patching) helps maintain consistency but does not correct reporting errors.

  Option D (Resetting plug-ins) may be useful if plug-ins are outdated, but the primary issue is lack of privileged access during scanning. Thus, C is the correct answer, as credentialed scans provide more accurate vulnerability assessments.

• Question 67:

  A security analyst is reviewing the findings of the latest vulnerability report for a company's web application. The web application accepts files for a Bash script to be processed if the files match a given hash. The analyst is able to submit files to the system due to a hash collision.

  Which of the following should the analyst suggest to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure?

  A. Deploy a WAF to the front of the application.
  B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.
  C. Deploy an antivirus application on the hosting system.
  D. Replace the MD5 with digital signatures.
  B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.

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  Explanation

  This option involves changing the hash algorithm from the vulnerable MD5 to the more secure SHA-256. It addresses the hash collision vulnerability directly and doesn't require major changes to the existing infrastructure or script logic.

• Question 68:

  A security analyst receives an alert with the following packet capture:

  

  Which of the following conclusions should the analyst reach about this incident?

  A. EnCase is enumerating a server.
  B. A Nessus proxy is manipulating traffic.
  C. An Nmap scan is occurring.
  D. Metasploit is installing on a target.
  C. An Nmap scan is occurring.

• Question 69:

  Each time a vulnerability assessment team shares the regular report with other teams, inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure are discovered.

  Which of the following is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies?

  A. Implementing credentialed scanning
  B. Changing from a passive to an active scanning approach
  C. Implementing a central place to manage IT assets
  D. Performing agentless scanning
  C. Implementing a central place to manage IT assets

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  Explanation

  Implementing a central place to manage IT assets is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure. A central place to manage IT assets, such as a configuration management database (CMDB), can help the vulnerability assessment team to have an accurate and up-to-date inventory of all the hardware and software components in the network, as well as their relationships and dependencies. A CMDB can also track the changes and updates made to the IT assets, and provide a single source of truth for the vulnerability assessment team and other teams to compare and verify the versions and patches of the infrastructure 12. Implementing credentialed scanning, changing from a passive to an active scanning approach, and performing agentless scanning are all methods to improve the vulnerability scanning process, but they do not address the root cause of the inconsistencies, which is the lack of a central place to manage IT assets 3.

  References:

  What is a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?, How to Use a CMDB to Improve Vulnerability Management, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices

• Question 70:

  During the log analysis phase, the following suspicious command is detected

  

  Which of the following is being attempted?

  A. Buffer overflow
  B. RCE
  C. ICMP tunneling
  D. Smurf attack
  B. RCE

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  Explanation

  RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory locations and corrupting the program's execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply and generate a large amount of traffic.

  Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack?

  Smurf DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of ...3