CompTIA CS0-003 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CS0-003 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 441:

  A security analyst needs to identify an asset that should be remediated based on the following information:

  

  Which of the following assets should the analyst remediate first?

  A. Mail server
  B. Domain controller
  C. Web server
  D. File server
  C. Web server

• Question 442:

  After a series of UEBA alerts, a company's SOC observes an extended period of suspicious outbound traffic all with the same destination.

  Which of the following steps of the cyber kill chain has this attack completed?

  A. Weaponization
  B. Command and control
  C. Reconnaissance
  D. Exploitation
  B. Command and control

• Question 443:

  Which of the following in the digital forensics process is considered a critical activity that often includes a graphical representation of process and operating system events?

  A. Registry editing
  B. Network mapping
  C. Timeline analysis
  D. Write blocking
  C. Timeline analysis

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  Explanation

  Timeline analysis in digital forensics involves creating a chronological sequence of events based on system logs, file changes, and other forensic data. This process often uses graphical representations to illustrate and analyze how an incident unfolded over time, making it easier to identify key events and potential indicators of compromise. This approach is highlighted in CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) practices as crucial for understanding the scope and sequence of a security incident. The other options do not involve chronological or graphical analysis to the extent that timeline analysis does.

• Question 444:

  An organization has implemented code into a production environment. During a routine test, a penetration tester found that some of the code had a backdoor implemented, causing a developer to make changes outside of the change management windows.

  Which of the following is the best way to prevent this issue?

  A. SDLC training
  B. Dynamic analysis
  C. Debugging
  D. Source code review
  D. Source code review

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  Explanation

  A backdoor is a deliberate vulnerability inserted into the code, often allowing unauthorized access.

  Source code review (Option D) is the best way to detect malicious code before it is deployed to production.

  SDLC training (Option A) is helpful but does not directly prevent the insertion of backdoors.

  Dynamic analysis (Option B) detects vulnerabilities at runtime but may not always identify backdoors in code.

  Debugging (Option C) is useful for troubleshooting but does not address security vulnerabilities.

  References:

  CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Official Study Guide, Secure Software Development Practices.

• Question 445:

  Which of the following most accurately describes the Cyber Kill Chain methodology?

  A. It is used to correlate events to ascertain the TTPs of an attacker.
  B. It is used to ascertain lateral movements of an attacker, enabling the process to be stopped.
  C. It provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion and the actions to take at each stage
  D. It outlines a clear path for determining the relationships between the attacker, the technology used, and the target
  C. It provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion and the actions to take at each stage

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  Explanation

  The Cyber Kill Chain methodology provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion and the actions to take at each stage. It is divided into seven stages: reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and control, and actions on objectives. It helps network defenders understand and prevent cyberattacks by identifying the attacker's objectives and tactics.

  References:

  The Cyber Kill Chain: The Seven Steps of a Cyberattack

• Question 446:

  Several critical bugs were identified during a vulnerability scan. The SLA risk requirement is that all critical vulnerabilities should be patched within 24 hours. After sending a notification to the asset owners, the patch cannot be deployed due to planned, routine system upgrades.

  Which of the following is the best method to remediate the bugs?

  A. Reschedule the upgrade and deploy the patch
  B. Request an exception to exclude the patch from installation
  C. Update the risk register and request a change to the SLA
  D. Notify the incident response team and rerun the vulnerability scan
  A. Reschedule the upgrade and deploy the patch

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  Explanation

  It ensures that the critical vulnerabilities are patched as soon as possible, thereby minimizing the risk of exploitation. Rescheduling the upgrade allows the patch to be deployed within the required timeframe, ensuring compliance with the 24- hour patching policy. The other options either delay the patching or don't directly address the immediate need to remediate the vulnerabilities.

• Question 447:

  Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident?

  A. Business continuity plan
  B. Vulnerability management plan
  C. Disaster recovery plan
  D. Asset management plan
  A. Business continuity plan

• Question 448:

  Which of the following best explains the importance of utilizing an incident response playbook?

  A. It prioritizes the business-critical assets for data recovery.
  B. It establishes actions to execute when inputs trigger an event.
  C. It documents the organization asset management and configuration.
  D. It defines how many disaster recovery sites should be staged.
  B. It establishes actions to execute when inputs trigger an event.

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  Explanation

  Incident response playbooks provide a structured step-by-step guide for handling security incidents. They define actions to take when specific threat indicators or events occur, ensuring a coordinated and consistent response. Option A (Prioritizing business-critical assets) relates more to disaster recovery (DR) than incident response.

  Option C (Documenting asset management) is part of IT governance, not incident response.

  Option D (Defining DR sites) falls under business continuity planning, not real-time incident handling.

  Thus, B is the best answer, as playbooks are designed to trigger appropriate responses to incidents.

• Question 449:

  Several incidents have occurred with a legacy web application that has had little development work completed.

  Which of the following is the most likely cause of the incidents?

  A. Misconfigured web application firewall
  B. Data integrity failure
  C. Outdated libraries
  D. Insufficient logging
  C. Outdated libraries

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  Explanation

  Outdated libraries in a legacy web application introduce security vulnerabilities, as they lack modern patches and contain known exploits. Option A (Misconfigured WAF) can contribute to security issues but is not inherent to legacy applications.

  Option B (Data integrity failure) is a potential impact but not a direct cause of recurring incidents.

  Option D (Insufficient logging) affects detection, but the root cause is insecure, outdated components.

  Thus, C (Outdated libraries) is the correct answer, as legacy applications frequently suffer from unpatched vulnerabilities.

• Question 450:

  During an incident involving phishing, a security analyst needs to find the source of the malicious email.

  Which of the following techniques would provide the analyst with this information?

  A. Header analysis
  B. Packet capture
  C. SSL inspection
  D. Reverse engineering
  A. Header analysis