CompTIA CS0-003 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CS0-003 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 351:

  Following an incident, a security analyst needs to create a script for downloading the configuration of all assets from the cloud tenancy.

  Which of the following authentication methods should the analyst use?

  A. MFA
  B. User and password
  C. PAM
  D. Key pair
  D. Key pair

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  Explanation

  Key pair authentication is a method of using a public and private key to securely access cloud resources, such as downloading the configuration of assets from a cloud tenancy. Key pair authentication is more secure than user and password or PAM, and does not require an additional factor like MFA.

  References:

  Authentication Methods - Configuring Tenant-Wide Settings in Azure ..., Cloud Foundation - Oracle Help Center

• Question 352:

  An incident response team finished responding to a significant security incident. The management team has asked the lead analyst to provide an after-action report that includes lessons learned.

  Which of the following is the most likely reason to include lessons learned?

  A. To satisfy regulatory requirements for incident reporting
  B. To hold other departments accountable
  C. To identify areas of improvement in the incident response process
  D. To highlight the notable practices of the organization's incident response team
  C. To identify areas of improvement in the incident response process

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  Explanation

  The most likely reason to include lessons learned in an after-action report is to identify areas of improvement in the incident response process. The lessons learned process is a way of reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying areas of improvement in the incident response process can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents, as well as provide feedback or recommendations on how to address any issues or challenges.

• Question 353:

  Which of the following best describes the reporting metric that should be utilized when measuring the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage?

  A. Timeline
  B. Evidence
  C. Impact
  D. Scope
  C. Impact

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  Explanation

  The impact metric is the best way to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The impact metric quantifies the consequences of the outage in terms of lost revenue, productivity, reputation, customer satisfaction, or other relevant factors. The impact metric can help prioritize the recovery efforts and justify the resources needed to restore the service.The other options are not the best ways to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The timeline metric (A) measures the duration and frequency of the outage, but not its effects. The evidence metric (B) measures the sources and types of data that can be used to investigate and analyze the outage, but not its effects. The scope metric (D) measures the extent and severity of the outage, but not its effects.

• Question 354:

  A product manager is working with an analyst to design a new application that will perform as a data analytics platform and will be accessible via a web browser. The product manager suggests using a PaaS provider to host the application.

  Which of the following is a security concern when using a PaaS solution?

  A. The use of infrastructure-as-code capabilities leads to an increased attack surface.
  B. Patching the underlying application server becomes the responsibility of the client.
  C. The application is unable to use encryption at the database level.
  D. Insecure application programming interfaces can lead to data compromise.
  D. Insecure application programming interfaces can lead to data compromise.

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  Explanation

  Insecure application programming interfaces (APIs) can lead to data compromise when using a PaaS solution. APIs are interfaces that allow applications to communicate with each other and with the underlying platform. APIs can expose sensitive data or functionality to unauthorized or malicious users if they are not properly designed, implemented, or secured. Insecure APIs can result in data breaches, denial of service, unauthorized access, or code injection .

  https://spot.io/resources/cloud-security/paas-security-threats-solutions-and-bestpractices/

• Question 355:

  A security analyst who works in the SOC receives a new requirement to monitor for indicators of compromise.

  Which of the following is the first action the analyst should take in this situation?

  A. Develop a dashboard to track the indicators of compromise.
  B. Develop a query to search for the indicators of compromise.
  C. Develop a new signature to alert on the indicators of compromise.
  D. Develop a new signature to block the indicators of compromise.
  B. Develop a query to search for the indicators of compromise.

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  Explanation

  Developing a query to search for the indicators of compromise is the first action the analyst should take in this situation. Indicators of compromise (IOCs) are pieces of information that suggest a system or network has been compromised by an attacker. IOCs can include IP addresses, domain names, file hashes, URLs, or other artifacts that are associated with malicious activity. Developing a query to search for IOCs can help to identify any potential incidents or threats in the environment and initiate further investigation or response .

  https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/incident-response/indicators-ofcompromise/

• Question 356:

  A security analyst is writing a shell script to identify IP addresses from the same country.

  Which of the following functions would help the analyst achieve the objective?

  A. function w() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F "/" `END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
  B. function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" }
  C. function y() { info=$(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 ) && echo "$1 | $info" }
  D. function z() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk `END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
  B. function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" }

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  Explanation

  The function that would help the analyst identify IP addresses from the same country is:

  function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" } This function takes an IP address as an argument and uses the geoiplookup command to get the geographic location information associated with the IP address, such as the country name, country code, region, city, or latitude and longitude. The function then prints the IP address and the geographic location information, which can help identify any IP addresses that belong to the same country.

• Question 357:

  A user is flagged for consistently consuming a high volume of network bandwidth over the past week. During the investigation, the security analyst finds traffic to the following websites:

  

  Which of the following data flows should the analyst investigate first?

  A. netflix.com
  B. youtube.com
  C. tiktok.com
  D. grnail.com
  E. translate.google.com
  F. office.com
  D. grnail.com

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  Explanation

  D ("grnail.com") is a suspicious domain that resembles "gmail.com." The high "bytes out" value (525,984 bytes) indicates potential data exfiltration. Attackers often use typosquatting (e.g., "grnail.com" instead of "gmail.com") to trick users into visiting malicious sites.

  Why Not Other Options?

  A (Netflix, B YouTube, C TikTok) Large downloads, but expected behavior for streaming sites.

  E (Google Translate) Low data volume, no exfiltration risk. F (Office.com) Microsoft service, no indication of malicious activity.

  References:

  CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003, Chapter 5: "Threat Intelligence and Threat Detection," Section: "Analyzing Malicious Domains and Network Traffic."

• Question 358:

  A security analyst received an alert regarding multiple successful MFA log-ins for a particular user.

  When reviewing the authentication logs the analyst sees the following:

  

  Which of the following are most likely occurring, based on the MFA logs? (Select two).

  A. Dictionary attack
  B. Push phishing
  C. impossible geo-velocity
  D. Subscriber identity module swapping
  E. Rogue access point
  F. Password spray
  B. Push phishing
  C. impossible geo-velocity

• Question 359:

  An organization plans to use an advanced machine-learning tool as a central collection server. The tool will perform data aggregation and analysis.

  Which of the following should the organization implement?

  A. SIEM
  B. Firewalls
  C. Syslog server
  D. Flow analysis
  A. SIEM

• Question 360:

  AXSS vulnerability was reported on one of the non-sensitive/non-mission-critical public websites of a company. The security department confirmed the finding and needs to provide a recommendation to the application owner.

  Which of the following recommendations will best prevent this vulnerability from being exploited?

  (Select two).

  A. Implement an IPS in front of the web server.
  B. Enable MFA on the website.
  C. Take the website offline until it is patched.
  D. Implement a compensating control in the source code.
  E. Configure TLS v1.3 on the website.
  F. Fix the vulnerability using a virtual patch at the WAF.
  D. Implement a compensating control in the source code.
  F. Fix the vulnerability using a virtual patch at the WAF.

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  Explanation

  The best recommendations to prevent an XSS vulnerability from being exploited are to implement a compensating control in the source code and to fix the vulnerability using a virtual patch at the WAF. A compensating control is a technique that mitigates the risk of a vulnerability by adding additional security measures, such as input validation, output encoding, or HTML sanitization. A virtual patch is a rule that blocks or modifies malicious requests or responses at the WAF level, without modifying the application code. These recommendations are effective, efficient, and less disruptive than the other options.

  References:

  CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156

  Cross Site Scripting Prevention Cheat Sheet, Section: XSS Defense Philosophy.