CompTIA CS0-003 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CS0-003 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 281:

  A corporation wants to implement an agent-based endpoint solution to help:

  Flag various threats

  Review vulnerability feeds

  Aggregate data

  Provide real-time metrics by using scripting languages.

  Which of the following tools should the corporation implement to reach this goal?

  A. DLP
  B. Heuristics
  C. SOAR
  D. NAC
  C. SOAR

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  Explanation

  Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) solutions allow organizations to integrate security tools, automate response actions, and aggregate threat intelligence. This matches the organization's goal of threat detection, real-time analysis, and data aggregation.

  Option A (DLP - Data Loss Prevention) is focused on data security rather than threat aggregation and response automation.

  Option B (Heuristics) is a method for threat detection, not a platform for security automation.

  Option D (NAC - Network Access Control) manages device access rather than handling security automation.

  Thus, C (SOAR) is the correct answer, as it automates threat detection, intelligence integration, and real-time response.

• Question 282:

  SIMULATION

  A systems administrator is reviewing the output of a vulnerability scan.

  INSTRUCTIONS

  Review the information in each tab.

  Based on the organization's environment architecture and remediation standards,

  select the server to be patched within 14 days and select the appropriate technique and mitigation.

  

  

  

  

  A. See the answer in explanation for this task.
  B. PlaceHoder
  C. PlaceHoder
  D. PlaceHoder
  A. See the answer in explanation for this task.

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  Explanation

  Step 1: Reviewing the Vulnerability Remediation Timeframes

  The remediation standards require servers to be patched based on their CVSS score: CVSS > 9.0: Patch within 7 days CVSS 7.9 - 9.0: Patch within 14 days

  CVSS 5.0 - 7.9: Patch within 30 days

  CVSS 0 - 5.0: Patch within 60 days

  Step 2: Analyzing the Output Tab From the Output tab: Server 192.168.76.5 has a CVSS score of 9.2 for an unsupported Microsoft IIS version, indicating a critical vulnerability requiring a patch within 7 days. Server 192.168.76.6 has a CVSS score of 7.4 for a missing secure attribute on HTTPS cookies, which falls in the 5.0 - 7.9 range, requiring a patch within 30 days. Since the question asks for the server to be patched within 14 days, we need to focus on servers with CVSS 7.9 - 9.0: None of the servers have a CVSS score that falls precisely in the 7.9 - 9.0 range. However, 192.168.76.5, with a CVSS score of 9.2, has a vulnerability that necessitates a quick response and fits as it must be patched within the shortest timeframe (7 days, which includes 14 days).

  The server that fits within a 14-day urgency, based on standard practices, would be 192.168.76.5.

  Step 3: Reviewing the Environment Tab

  The Environment Tab provides additional context for 192.168.76.5: It's in the dev environment, which is internal and not publicly accessible. MFA is required, indicating security measures are already present. Step 4: Selecting the Appropriate Technique and Mitigation For 192.168.76.5, with the Microsoft IIS unsupported version: Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release is the most suitable option, as upgrading IIS will resolve the unsupported software vulnerability by bringing it up-to-date with supported versions.

  This technique addresses the root cause, which is the unpatched, outdated software.

  Summary

  Server to be patched within 14 calendar days: 192.168.76.5 Appropriate technique and mitigation: Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release This approach ensures that the most critical vulnerabilities are addressed promptly, maintaining

  security compliance.

  

• Question 283:

  Which of the following is a reason for correctly identifying APTs that might be targeting an organization?

  A. APTs' passion for social justice will make them ongoing and motivated attackers.
  B. APTs utilize methods and technologies differently than other threats.
  C. APTs are primarily focused on financial gain and are widely available over the internet.
  D. APTs lack sophisticated methods, but their dedication makes them persistent.
  B. APTs utilize methods and technologies differently than other threats.

• Question 284:

  An end user forwarded an email with a file attachment to the SOC for review. The SOC analysts think the file was specially crafted for the target.

  Which of the following investigative actions would best determine if the attachment was malicious?

  A. Review the file in Virus Total to determine if the domain is associated with any phishing.
  B. Review the email header to analyze the DKIM, DMARC, and SPF values.
  C. Review the source IP address in AbuseIPDB.
  D. Review the attachment's behavior in a sandbox environment while running Wireshark.
  D. Review the attachment's behavior in a sandbox environment while running Wireshark.

• Question 285:

  A cybersecurity analyst is participating with the DLP project team to classify the organization's data.

  Which of the following is the primary purpose for classifying data?

  A. To identify regulatory compliance requirements
  B. To facilitate the creation of DLP rules
  C. To prioritize IT expenses
  D. To establish the value of data to the organization
  D. To establish the value of data to the organization

• Question 286:

  Which of the following ensures that a team receives simulated threats to evaluate incident response performance and coordination?

  A. Vulnerability assessment
  B. Incident response playbooks
  C. Tabletop exercise
  D. Cybersecurity frameworks
  C. Tabletop exercise

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  Explanation

  Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:A tabletop exercise is a structured simulation that allows teams to practice and evaluate their incident response procedures and coordination without actual operational impact. These exercises are used to identify gaps in processes and ensure preparedness for real-world threats.

  References:

  CompTIA CySA+ All-in-One Guide (Chapter 3: Incident Response Procedures) CompTIA CySA+ Practice Tests (Domain 3.0 Incident Response)

• Question 287:

  A security analyst is conducting a vulnerability assessment of a company's online store. The analyst discovers a critical vulnerability in the payment processing system that could be exploited, allowing attackers to steal customer payment information.

  Which of the following should the analyst do next?

  A. Leave the vulnerability unpatched until the next scheduled maintenance window to avoid potential disruption to business.
  B. Perform a risk assessment to evaluate the potential impact of the vulnerability and determine whether additional security measures are needed.
  C. Ignore the vulnerability since the company recently passed a payment system compliance audit.
  D. Isolate the payment processing system from production and schedule for reimaging.
  B. Perform a risk assessment to evaluate the potential impact of the vulnerability and determine whether additional security measures are needed.

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  Explanation

  When a critical vulnerability is identified, the immediate next step should be to assess the risk associated with the vulnerability. Risk assessment (Option B) helps determine the severity, exploitability, and business impact before deciding on mitigation measures.

  Option A (delaying the fix) is dangerous because payment data theft can have severe consequences, including regulatory penalties and reputational damage.

  Option C (ignoring the vulnerability) is incorrect because passing a compliance audit does not mean the system is secure.

  Option D (isolating and reimaging) is an extreme measure that might not be necessary unless active exploitation is detected.

  References:

  CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Official Study Guide, Risk Management & Vulnerability Management Lifecycle.

• Question 288:

  Which of the following would help an analyst to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address?

  A. Join an information sharing and analysis center specific to the company's industry
  B. Upload threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX'TAXII format
  C. Add data enrichment for IPs in the ingestion pipeline
  D. Review threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert
  C. Add data enrichment for IPs in the ingestion pipeline

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  Explanation

  The best option to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address is C. Add data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline. Data enrichment is the process of adding more information and context to raw data, such as IP addresses, by using external sources. Data enrichment can help analysts to gain more insights into the nature and origin of the threats they face, and to prioritize and respond to them accordingly. Data enrichment for IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) means that the IPS can use enriched data to block or alert on malicious traffic based on various criteria, such as geolocation, reputation, threat intelligence, or behavior. By adding data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline, analysts can leverage the IPS's capabilities to filter out known-malicious IP addresses before they reach the SIEM, or to tag them with relevant information for further analysis. This can save time and resources for the analysts, and improve the accuracy and efficiency of the SIEM. The other options are not as effective or efficient as data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline. Joining an information sharing and analysis center (ISAC) specific to the company's industry (A) can provide valuable threat intelligence and best practices, but it may not be timely or comprehensive enough to cover all possible malicious IP addresses. Uploading threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format (B) can help the IPS to identify and block malicious IP addresses based on standardized indicators of compromise, but it may require manual or periodic updates and integration with the SIEM. Reviewing threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert (D) can help analysts to verify and contextualize the malicious IP addresses, but it may be too late or too slow to prevent or mitigate the damage. Therefore, C is the best option among the choices given.

  References:

  https://ipinfo.io/use-cases/ip-data-for-data-enrichment

• Question 289:

  A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The relevant company security policies are shown below:

  1. Security Policy 1006: Vulnerability Management

  2. The Company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics (Exploitability and Impact) to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities.

  3. In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data.

  4. The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available system.

  According to the security policy, which of the following vulnerabilities should be the highest priority to patch?

  A. Name: THOR HAMMER CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:H internal System
  B. Name: CAP.SHIELD CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N External System
  C. Name: LOKI.DAGGER CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:H External System
  D. Name: THANOS.GAUNTLET CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N Internal System
  B. Name: CAP.SHIELD CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N External System

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  Explanation

  Based on the security policy and the CVSSv3.1 Base Scores, vulnerability B (CAP.SHIELD) with a high impact on confidentiality should be the highest priority to patch. It is an externally accessible system, and since confidentiality takes precedence over availability, it should be addressed before other vulnerabilities.

• Question 290:

  A company reports that user plain text credentials have been disclosed from their network. A security analyst is identifying the vulnerability and runs a scan to receive the following:

  

  Which of the following computers is the source of the leaked credentials?

  A. 10.205.8.14
  B. 10.205.8.15
  C. 10.205.8.16
  D. 10.205.8.17
  D. 10.205.8.17

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  Explanation

  Most Voted: A