CompTIA CS0-003 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CS0-003 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 91:

  A company's threat team has been reviewing recent security incidents and looking for a common theme. The team discovered the incidents were caused by incorrect configurations on the impacted systems. The issues were reported to support teams, but no action was taken.

  Which of the following is the next step the company should take to ensure any future issues are remediated?

  A. Require support teams to develop a corrective control that ensures security failures are addressed once they are identified.
  B. Require support teams to develop a preventive control that ensures new systems are built with the required security configurations.
  C. Require support teams to develop a detective control that ensures they continuously assess systems for configuration errors.
  D. Require support teams to develop a managerial control that ensures systems have a documented configuration baseline.
  B. Require support teams to develop a preventive control that ensures new systems are built with the required security configurations.

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  Explanation

  1. Preventive Control: Preventive controls are measures designed to prevent security incidents from occurring in the first place. By ensuring that new systems are built with the required security configurations from the outset, the company can significantly reduce the risk of configuration errors leading to security incidents.

  2. Corrective Control: While corrective controls (Option A) address issues after they have been identified, the goal here is to prevent the issues from occurring at all.

  3. Detective Control: Detective controls (Option C) help in identifying issues after they occur, but they do not prevent the issues from happening in the first place.

  4. Managerial Control: Managerial controls (Option D) focus on policy, documentation, and oversight. While important, they do not directly address the prevention of incorrect configurations. Ensuring that systems are correctly configured from the beginning is a proactive approach to reducing the risk of security incidents caused by configuration errors.

• Question 92:

  An analyst receives threat intelligence regarding potential attacks from an actor with seemingly unlimited time and resources.

  Which of the following best describes the threat actor attributed to the malicious activity?

  A. Insider threat
  B. Ransomware group
  C. Nation-state
  D. Organized crime
  C. Nation-state

• Question 93:

  A security analyst recently used Arachni to perform a vulnerability assessment of a newly developed web application. The analyst is concerned about the following output:

  [+] XSS: In form input 'txtSearch' with action https://localhost/search.aspx

  [-] XSS: Analyzing response #1...

  [-] XSS: Analyzing response #2...

  [-] XSS: Analyzing response #3...

  [+] XSS: Response is tainted. Looking for proof of the vulnerability.

  Which of the following is the most likely reason for this vulnerability?

  A. The developer set input validation protection on the specific field of search.aspx.
  B. The developer did not set proper cross-site scripting protections in the header.
  C. The developer did not implement default protections in the web application build.
  D. The developer did not set proper cross-site request forgery protections.
  B. The developer did not set proper cross-site scripting protections in the header.

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  Explanation

  The most likely reason for this vulnerability is B. The developer did not set proper cross-site scripting protections in the header. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of web application vulnerability that allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users. XSS can be used to steal cookies, session tokens, credentials, or other sensitive information, or to perform actions on behalf of the victim 1. One of the common ways to prevent XSS attacks is to set proper HTTP response headers that instruct the browser how to handle the content of the web page. For example, the Content-Type header can specify the MIME type and character encoding of the web page, which can help the browser avoid interpreting data as code. The X-XSS-Protection header can enable or disable the browser's built-in XSS filter, which can block or sanitize suspicious scripts. The Content-Security-Policy header can define a whitelist of sources and directives that control what resources and scripts can be loaded or executed on the web page 2.

  According to the output of Arachni, a web application security scanner framework3, it detected an XSS vulnerability in the form input `txtSearch' with action

  https://localhost/search.aspx.This

  means that Arachni was able to inject a malicious script into the input field and observe its execution in the response. This indicates that the developer did not set proper cross-site scripting protections in the header of search.aspx, which allowed Arachni to bypass the browser's defaultsecuritymechanismsandexecutearbitrarycodeonthewebpage.

• Question 94:

  A security administrator has been notified by the IT operations department that some vulnerability reports contain an incomplete list of findings.

  Which of the following methods should be used to resolve this issue?

  A. Credentialed scar
  B. External scan
  C. Differential scan
  D. Network scan
  A. Credentialed scar

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  Explanation

  A credentialed scan is a type of vulnerability scan that uses valid credentials to log in to the scanned systems and perform a more thorough and accurate assessment of their vulnerabilities. A credentialed scan can access more information than a non-credentialed scan, such as registry keys, patch levels, configuration settings, and installed applications. A credentialed scan can also reduce the number of false positives and false negatives, as it can verify the actual state of the system rather than relying on inference or assumptions. The other types of scans are not related to the issue of incomplete findings, as they refer to different aspects of vulnerability scanning, such as the scope, location, or frequency of the scan. An external scan is a scan that is performed from outside the network perimeter, usually from the internet. An external scan can reveal how an attacker would see the network and what vulnerabilities are exposed to the public. An external scan cannot access internal systems or resources that are behind firewalls or other security controls. A differential scan is a scan that compares the results of two scans and highlights the differences between them. A differential scan can help identify changes in the network environment, such as new vulnerabilities, patched vulnerabilities, or new devices. A differential scan does not provide a complete list of findings by itself, but rather a summary of changes. A network scan is a scan that focuses on the network layer of the OSI model and detects vulnerabilities related to network devices, protocols, services, and configurations. A network scan can discover open ports, misconfigured firewalls, unencrypted traffic, and other network-related issues. A network scan does not provide information about the application layer or the host layer of the OSI model, such as web applications or operating systems.

  References:

  https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/vulnerability-scanning.html

• Question 95:

  Which of the following techniques can help a SOC team to reduce the number of alerts related to the internal security activities that the analysts have to triage?

  A. Enrich the SIEM-ingested data to include all data required for triage.
  B. Schedule a task to disable alerting when vulnerability scans are executing.
  C. Filter all alarms in the SIEM with low severity.
  D. Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications.
  D. Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications.

• Question 96:

  A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools.

  Which of the following best describes what the security program did?

  A. Data enrichment
  B. Security control plane
  C. Threat feed combination
  D. Single pane of glass
  D. Single pane of glass

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  Explanation

  A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface that integrates multiple tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single pane of glass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, and alerting capabilities across various security controls and systems. A single pane of glass can also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making for security analysts. In this case, a security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glass for security operations.

  Official Reference:

  https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack

• Question 97:

  Which of the following is instituting a security policy that users must lock their systems when stepping away from their desks an example of?

  A. Configuration management
  B. Compensating control
  C. Awareness, education, and training
  D. Administrative control
  D. Administrative control

• Question 98:

  A company is implementing a vulnerability management program and moving from an on-premises environment to a hybrid IaaS cloud environment.

  Which of the following implications should be considered on the new hybrid environment?

  A. The current scanners should be migrated to the cloud
  B. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners
  C. Existing vulnerability scanners cannot scan laaS systems
  D. Vulnerability scans on cloud environments should be performed from the cloud
  B. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners

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  Explanation

  Cloud-specific misconfigurations are security issues that arise from improper or inadequate configuration of cloud resources, such as storage buckets, databases, virtual machines, or containers. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners that are designed for on-premises environments, as they may not have the visibility or access to the cloud resources or the "re, one of the implications that should be considered on the new hybrid environment is that cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners.

• Question 99:

  A manufacturing company's assembly line machinery only functions on an end-of-life OS. Consequently, no patches exist for several highly exploitable OS vulnerabilities.

  Which of the following is the best mitigating control to reduce the risk of these current conditions?

  A. Enforce strict network segmentation to isolate vulnerable systems from the production network.
  B. Increase the system resources for vulnerable devices to prevent denial of service.
  C. Perform penetration testing to verify the exploitability of these vulnerabilities.
  D. Develop in-house patches to address these vulnerabilities.
  A. Enforce strict network segmentation to isolate vulnerable systems from the production network.

• Question 100:

  Which of the following is the most important factor to ensure accurate incident response reporting?

  A. A well-defined timeline of the events
  B. A guideline for regulatory reporting
  C. Logs from the impacted system
  D. A well-developed executive summary
  A. A well-defined timeline of the events

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  Explanation

  Although all of the options presented are important factors in ensuring accurate incident response reporting, but option A, is generally considered the most important factor. Having a detailed timeline of events allows incident responders to understand the sequence of actions, the duration of the incident, and the relationships between different actions. This helps in identifying the root cause of the incident, understanding its scope, and crafting an effective response strategy.