Isaca CISA Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Isaca CISA Online Questions & Answers

• Question 331:

  To BEST evaluate the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan, the IS auditor should review the:

  A. test plan and results of past tests.
  B. plans and procedures in the business continuity plan.
  C. capacity of backup facilities.
  D. hardware and software inventory.
  A. test plan and results of past tests.

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  Explanation

• Question 332:

  During a project assessment, an IS auditor finds that business owners have been removed from the project initiation phase. Which of the following should be the auditor's GREATEST concern with this situation?

  A. Unrealistic milestones
  B. Inadequate deliverables
  C. Unclear benefits
  D. Incomplete requirements
  D. Incomplete requirements

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  Explanation

  The answer D is correct because the greatest concern for an IS auditor with the situation of business owners being removed from the project initiation phase is that the requirements may be incomplete. The project initiation phase is the first step in starting a new project, where the project's purpose, scope, objectives, and deliverables are defined and documented. The project initiation phase also involves identifying and engaging the key stakeholders who have an interest or influence in the project, such as sponsors, customers, users, or business owners. Business owners are the individuals or entities who have the authority and responsibility to define the business needs and expectations for the project. They are also the primary beneficiaries of the project outcomes and benefits. Business owners play a crucial role in the project initiation phase, as they provide valuable input and feedback on the requirements and specifications of the project. Requirements are the statements that describe what the project should accomplish or deliver to meet the business needs and expectations. Requirements are essential for guiding the project planning, execution, monitoring, and closure phases. If business owners are removed from the project initiation phase, it can result in incomplete or inaccurate requirements, which can have negative impacts on the project's quality, scope, time, cost, and risk. Some of the possible consequences of incomplete requirements are: Misalignment: The project may not align with the business strategy, vision, or goals, which can reduce its value or relevance. Confusion: The project team may not have a clear understanding of what the project should achieve or deliver, which can affect their performance or productivity. Rework: The project may need to undergo frequent changes or revisions to accommodate new or modified requirements, which can increase the time and cost of the project. Dissatisfaction: The project may not meet the expectations or satisfaction of the business owners or other stakeholders, which can affect their acceptance or support of the project. Failure: The project may not deliver the expected outcomes or benefits, which can affect its success or viability. Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned about the involvement and participation of business owners in the project initiation phase, as it affects the completeness and quality of requirements. An IS auditor should review the policies and

  procedures for stakeholder identification and engagement, verify that the business owners have adequate knowledge and skills to define their requirements, and test that the requirements are well-defined, documented, approved, and

  communicated.

  References:

  Project Initiation: The First Step to Project Management [2023] ?Asana Everything you need to know about the project initiation phase Project Initiation Phase - The Business Professor Project Initiation: A Guide to Starting a Project Right Way

  -Kissflow

• Question 333:

  The use of which of the following would BEST enhance a process improvement program?

  A. Model-based design notations
  B. Balanced scorecard
  C. Capability maturity models
  D. Project management methodologies
  C. Capability maturity models

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  Explanation

  Capability maturity models (CMMs) are frameworks that help organizations assess and improve their processes in various domains, such as software development, project management, service delivery, and cybersecurity. CMMs define different levels of process maturity, from initial to optimized, and describe the characteristics and best practices of each level. By using CMMs, organizations can benchmark their current processes against a common standard, identify gaps and weaknesses, and implement improvement actions to achieve higher levels of process maturity. CMMs can also help organizations align their processes with their strategic goals, measure their performance, and increase their efficiency, quality, and customer satisfaction. Therefore, the use of CMMs would best enhance a process improvement program, as they provide a systematic and structured approach to evaluate and improve processes based on proven principles and practices. Option C is the correct answer. Option A is not correct because model-based design notations are graphical or textual languages that help designers specify, visualize, and document the structure and behavior of systems. While they can be useful for designing and communicating complex systems, they do not directly address the process improvement aspect of a program. Option B is not correct because balanced scorecard is a strategic management tool that helps organizations translate their vision and mission into measurable objectives and indicators. While it can be useful for monitoring and evaluating the performance of a program, it does not provide specific guidance on how to improve processes. Option D is not correct because project management methodologies are sets of principles and practices that help organizations plan, execute, and control projects. While they can be useful for managing the scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk of a program, they do not focus on the process improvement aspect of a program.

  References: Guide to Process Maturity Models What is CMMI? A model for optimizing development processes1 Capability Maturity Model (CMM): A Definitive Guide3 Model-Based Design Notations Balanced Scorecard Project Management Methodologies

• Question 334:

  Which of the following physical controls will MOST effectively prevent breaches of computer room security?

  A. Photo IDs
  B. CCTV monitoring
  C. Retina scanner
  D. RFID badge
  C. Retina scanner

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  Explanation

• Question 335:

  During a review of a production schedule, an IS auditor observes that a staff member is not complying with mandatory operational procedures. The auditor's NEXT step should be to:

  A. note the noncompliance in the audit working papers.
  B. issue an audit memorandum identifying the noncompliance.
  C. include the noncompliance in the audit report.
  D. determine why the procedures were not followed.
  D. determine why the procedures were not followed.

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  Explanation

• Question 336:

  Which of the following is MOST important to include in security awareness training?

  A. How to respond to various types of suspicious activity
  B. The importance of complex passwords
  C. Descriptions of the organization's security infrastructure
  D. Contact information for the organization's security team
  A. How to respond to various types of suspicious activity

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  Explanation

  The most important thing to include in security awareness training is how to respond to various types of suspicious activity. Security awareness training is a program that educates employees about the importance of security and how to avoid common threats and risks. One of the main objectives of security awareness training is to enable employees to recognize and report any signs of malicious or unauthorized activity, such as phishing emails, malware infections, data breaches, or social engineering attempts. By teaching employees how to respond to various types of suspicious activity, security awareness training can help to prevent or mitigate the impact of security incidents, protect the organization's assets and reputation, and comply with legal and regulatory requirements. The other options are not as important as option A. The importance of complex passwords is a useful topic, but not the most important thing to include in security awareness training. Complex passwords are passwords that are hard to guess or crack by using a combination of letters, numbers, symbols, and cases. Complex passwords can help to protect user accounts and data from unauthorized access, but they are not sufficient to prevent all types of security incidents. Moreover, complex passwords may be difficult to remember or manage by users, and may require additional measures such as password managers or multi-factor authentication. Descriptions of the organization's security infrastructure is a technical topic, but not the most important thing to include in security awareness training. Security infrastructure is the set of hardware, software, policies, and procedures that provide the foundation for the organization's security posture and capabilities. Security infrastructure may include firewalls, antivirus software, encryption tools, access control systems, backup systems, etc. Descriptions of the organization's security infrastructure may be relevant for some employees who are involved in security operations or administration, but they may not be necessary or understandable for all employees who need security awareness training. Contact information for the organization's security team is a practical detail, but not the most important thing to include in security awareness training. Security team is the group of people who are responsible for planning, implementing, monitoring, and improving the organization's security strategy and activities. Contact information for the organization's security team may be useful for employees who need to report or escalate a security issue or request a security service or support. However, contact information for the organization's security team is not enough to ensure that employees know how to respond to various types of suspicious activity.

  References: Security Awareness Training | SANS Security Awareness, Security Awareness Training | KnowBe4, Security Awareness Training Course (ISC)?| Coursera

• Question 337:

  Which of the following is a preventive control related to change management?

  A. Implementation of managed change approval processes
  B. Log review of managed changes
  C. Debugging of implemented changes
  D. Audit of implemented changes for the period under review
  A. Implementation of managed change approval processes

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  Explanation

• Question 338:

  IS audit is asked to explain how local area network (LAN) servers can contribute to a rapid dissemination of viruses. The IS auditor's BEST response is that:

  A. the server's software is the prime target and is the first to be infected.
  B. the server's operating system exchanges data with each station starting at every log-on.
  C. the server's file sharing function facilitates the distribution of files and applications.
  D. users of a given server have similar usage of applications and files.
  C. the server's file sharing function facilitates the distribution of files and applications.

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  Explanation

• Question 339:

  While reviewing transactions, an IS auditor discovers inconsistencies in a relational database. Which of the following would be the auditor's BEST recommendation?

  A. Update the data dictionary.
  B. Implement edit checks.
  C. Perform data modeling.
  D. Conduct data owner training.
  B. Implement edit checks.

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  Explanation

  Explanation

• Question 340:

  Which of the following should be the FRST step when developing a data toes prevention (DIP) solution for a large organization?

  A. Identify approved data workflows across the enterprise.
  B. Conduct a threat analysis against sensitive data usage.
  C. Create the DLP pcJc.es and templates
  D. Conduct a data inventory and classification exercise
  D. Conduct a data inventory and classification exercise

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  Explanation

  The first step when developing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution for a large organization is to conduct a data inventory and classification exercise. This step is essential to identify the types, locations, owners, and sensitivity levels of the data that need to be protected by the DLP solution. A data inventory and classification exercise helps to define the scope, objectives, and requirements of the DLP solution, as well as to prioritize the data protection efforts based on the business value and risk of the data. A data inventory and classification exercise also enables the organization to comply with relevant laws and regulations regarding data privacy and security. The other options are not the first step when developing a DLP solution, but rather subsequent steps that depend on the outcome of the data inventory and classification exercise. Identifying approved data workflows across the enterprise is a step that helps to design and implement the DLP policies and controls that match the business processes and data flows. Conducting a threat analysis against sensitive data usage is a step that helps to assess and mitigate the risks associated with data leakage, theft, or misuse. Creating the DLP policies and templates is a step that helps to enforce the data protection rules and standards across the organization.

  References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition (2019), page 247 Data Loss Prevention--Next Steps - ISACA What is data loss prevention (DLP)? | Microsoft Security