Isaca CISA Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Isaca CISA Online Questions & Answers

• Question 1601:

  An organization has introduced a capability maturity model to the system development life cycle (SDLC) to measure improvements. Which of the following is the BEST indication of successful process improvement?

  A. Evaluation results align with defined business goals
  B. Process maturity reaches the highest state of process optimization.
  C. Evaluation results exceed process maturity benchmarks against competitors.
  D. Processes demonstrate the mitigation of inherent business risk.
  A. Evaluation results align with defined business goals

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  Explanation

  Explanation

• Question 1602:

  Which of the following responses to risk associated with separation of duties would incur the LOWEST initial cost?

  A. Risk mitigation
  B. Risk acceptance
  C. Risk transference
  D. Risk reduction
  B. Risk acceptance

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  Explanation

  Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step

  Risk acceptancemeanschoosing not to take immediate actionto mitigate the risk, making it thelowest-costapproach in the short term.

  Risk Acceptance (Correct Answer B)

  Risk Mitigation (Incorrect A)

  Risk Transference (Incorrect C)

  Risk Reduction (Incorrect D)

  References:

  ISACA CISA Review Manual

  ISO 31000 (Risk Management Framework)

• Question 1603:

  Which of the following is the BEST way to verify the effectiveness of a data restoration process?

  A. Performing periodic reviews of physical access to backup media
  B. Performing periodic complete data restorations
  C. Validating off ne backups using software utilities
  D. Reviewing and updating data restoration policies annually
  B. Performing periodic complete data restorations

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  Explanation

  The best way to verify the effectiveness of a data restoration process is to perform periodic complete data restorations. This is the process of transferring backup data to the primary system or data center and verifying that the restored data is accurate, complete, and functional. By performing periodic complete data restorations, the auditee can test the reliability and validity of the backup data, the functionality and performance of the restoration tools and procedures, and the compatibility and integrity of the restored data with the primary system. This will also help identify and resolve any issues or errors that may occur during the restoration process, such as corrupted or missing files, incompatible formats, or configuration problems. Performing periodic reviews of physical access to backup media (option A) is not the best way to verify the effectiveness of a data restoration process, as it only ensures the security and availability of the backup media, not the quality or usability of the backup data. Physical access reviews are important for preventing unauthorized access, theft, damage, or loss of backup media, but they do not test the actual restoration process or verify that the backup data can be successfully restored. Validating offline backups using software utilities (option C) is also not the best way to verify the effectiveness of a data restoration process, as it only checks the integrity and consistency of the backup data, not the functionality or compatibility of the restored data. Software utilities can help detect and correct any errors or inconsistencies in the backup data, such as checksum errors, duplicate files, or incomplete backups, but they do not test the actual restoration process or verify that the restored data can work with the primary system. Reviewing and updating data restoration policies annually (option D) is also not the best way to verify the effectiveness of a data restoration process, as it only ensures that the policies are current and relevant, not that they are implemented and followed. Data restoration policies are important for defining roles and responsibilities, objectives and scope, standards and procedures, and metrics and reporting for the restoration process, but they do not test the actual restoration process or verify that it meets the expected outcomes. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

  References: What is backup and disaster recovery? | IBM Backup and Recovery of Data: The Essential Guide | Veritas Database Backup and Recovery Best Practices - ISACA

• Question 1604:

  The activation of a pandemic response plan has resulted in a remote workforce situation. Which of the following technologies poses the GREATEST risk to data confidentiality?

  A. Remotely managed network switches
  B. Rapid increase in the number of virtual private network (VPN) users
  C. On-premise employee workstations left unattended
  D. BYOD devices without adequate endpoint protection
  D. BYOD devices without adequate endpoint protection

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  Explanation

• Question 1605:

  Which of the following security risks can be reduced by a property configured network firewall?

  A. SQL injection attacks
  B. Denial of service (DoS) attacks
  C. Phishing attacks
  D. Insider attacks
  B. Denial of service (DoS) attacks

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  Explanation

  A network firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A network firewall can help reduce the risk of denial of service (DoS) attacks, which are attempts to overwhelm a system or network with excessive requests or traffic, by filtering or blocking unwanted or malicious packets. A SQL injection attack is a type of code injection attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application's database query, by inserting malicious SQL statements into the input fields. A phishing attack is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware, by sending fraudulent emails or messages that impersonate legitimate entities. An insider attack is a type of malicious activity that originates from within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners, who abuse their access privileges or credentials to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information systems or data. A network firewall cannot prevent these types of attacks, as they rely on exploiting human or application weaknesses rather than network vulnerabilities.

• Question 1606:

  Which of the following would BEST provide an information security manager with sufficient assurance that a service provider complies with organization's information security requirements?

  A. A live demonstration of the third-party supplier's security capabilities
  B. Third-party security control self-assessment results
  C. An independent review report indicating compliance with industry standards
  D. The ability to audit the third-party supplier's IT systems and processes
  C. An independent review report indicating compliance with industry standards

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  Explanation

• Question 1607:

  Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an IS auditor to ensure information is preserved when conducting a forensic investigation?

  A. Harden computer hardware and software.
  B. Image residual data and deleted files.
  C. Encode system logs and intrusion detection system (IDS) logs.
  D. Document all application programming interface (API) connections with third parties.
  B. Image residual data and deleted files.

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  Explanation

  Explanation

• Question 1608:

  What is the PRIMARY purpose of documenting audit objectives when preparing for an engagement?

  A. To address the overall risk associated with the activity under review
  B. To identify areas with relatively high probability of material problems
  C. To help ensure maximum use of audit resources during the engagement
  D. To help prioritize and schedule auditee meetings
  B. To identify areas with relatively high probability of material problems

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  Explanation

  The primary purpose of documenting audit objectives when preparing for an engagement is to identify areas with relatively high probability of material problems. Audit objectives are statements that describe what the audit intends to accomplish or verify during the engagement. Audit objectives help the IS auditor to focus on the key areas of risk or concern, to design appropriate audit procedures and tests, and to evaluate audit evidence and results. By documenting audit objectives, the IS auditor can identify areas with relatively high probability of material problems that may affect the achievement of audit goals or business objectives. Addressing the overall risk associated with the activity under review, ensuring maximum use of audit resources during the engagement and prioritizing and scheduling auditee meetings are also purposes of documenting audit objectives, but they are not as primary as identifying areas with high probability of material problems.

  References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 1111 CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

• Question 1609:

  When assessing the overall effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery planning process, which of the following is MOST important for the IS auditor to verify?

  A. Management contracts with a third party for warm site services.
  B. Management schedules an annual tabletop exercise.
  C. Management documents and distributes a copy of the plan to all personnel.
  D. Management reviews and updates the plan annually or as changes occur.
  D. Management reviews and updates the plan annually or as changes occur.

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  Explanation

  The overall effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery planning process depends on how well the plan reflects the current and future needs and risks of the organization, and how well the plan is tested, communicated, and maintained. Among the four options given, the most important one for the IS auditor to verify is that management reviews and updates the plan annually or as changes occur. A disaster recovery plan is not a static document that can be created once and forgotten. It is a dynamic and evolving process that requires regular review and update to ensure that it remains relevant, accurate, and effective. A disaster recovery plan should be reviewed and updated at least annually, or whenever there are significant changes in the organization's structure, operations, environment, or regulations. These changes could affect the business impact analysis, risk assessment, recovery objectives, recovery strategies, roles and responsibilities, or resources of the disaster recovery plan. If the plan is not updated to reflect these changes, it could become obsolete, incomplete, or inconsistent, and fail to meet the organization's recovery needs or expectations. The other three options are not as important as reviewing and updating the plan, although they may also contribute to the effectiveness of the disaster recovery planning process. Contracting with a third party for warm site services is a possible recovery strategy that involves using a partially equipped facility that can be quickly activated in case of a disaster. However, this strategy may not be suitable or sufficient for every organization or scenario, and it does not guarantee the success of the disaster recovery plan. Scheduling an annual tabletop exercise is a good practice that involves simulating a disaster scenario and testing the plan in a hypothetical setting. However, this exercise may not be enough to evaluate the feasibility or readiness of the plan, and it should be complemented by other types of tests, such as walkthroughs, drills, or full-scale exercises. Documenting and distributing a copy of the plan to all personnel is an essential step that ensures that everyone involved in or affected by the plan is aware of their roles and responsibilities, and has access to the relevant information and instructions. However, this step alone does not ensure that the plan is understood or followed by all personnel, and it should be accompanied by proper training, education, and awareness programs. Therefore, reviewing and updating the plan annually or as changes occur is the best answer.

• Question 1610:

  Which of the following ACID property in DBMS requires that each transaction is "all or nothing"?

  A. Atomicity
  B. Consistency
  C. Isolation
  D. Durability
  A. Atomicity

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  Explanation

  Atomicity requires that each transaction is "all or nothing": if one part of the transaction fails, the entire transaction fails, and the database state is left unchanged.

  For CISA exam you should know below information about ACID properties in DBMS:

  Atomicity - Atomicity requires that each transaction is "all or nothing": if one part of the transaction fails, the entire transaction fails, and the database state is left unchanged. An atomic system must guarantee atomicity in each and every

  situation, including power failures, errors, and crashes. To the outside world, a committed transaction appears (by its effects on the database) to be indivisible ("atomic"), and an aborted transaction does not happen.

  Consistency - The consistency property ensures that any transaction will bring the database from one valid state to another. Any data written to the database must be valid according to all defined rules, including but not limited to constraints,

  cascades, triggers, and any combination thereof. This does not guarantee correctness of the transaction in all ways the application programmer might have wanted (that is the responsibility of application-level code) but merely that any

  programming errors do not violate any defined rules.

  Isolation - The isolation property ensures that the concurrent execution of transactions results in a system state that would be obtained if transactions were executed serially, i.e. one after the other. Providing isolation is the main goal of

  concurrency control. Depending on concurrency control method, the effects of an incomplete transaction might not even be visible to another transaction. [citation needed]

  Durability - Durability means that once a transaction has been committed, it will remain so, even in the event of power loss, crashes, or errors. In a relational database, for instance, once a group of SQL statements execute, the results need to

  be stored permanently (even if the database crashes immediately thereafter). To defend against power loss, transactions (or their effects) must be recorded in a non-volatile memory.

  The following were incorrect answers:

  Consistency - The consistency property ensures that any transaction will bring the database from one valid state to another. Any data written to the database must be valid according to all defined rules, including but not limited to constraints,

  cascades, triggers, and any combination thereof. This does not guarantee correctness of the transaction in all ways the application programmer might have wanted (that is the responsibility of application-level code) but merely that any

  programming errors do not violate any defined rules.

  Isolation - The isolation property ensures that the concurrent execution of transactions results in a system state that would be obtained if transactions were executed serially, i.e. one after the other.

  Durability - Durability means that once a transaction has been committed, it will remain so, even in the event of power loss, crashes, or errors.

  CISA review manual 2014 Page number 218