Medical Tests CEN Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Medical Tests CEN Online Questions & Answers

• Question 131:

  You are caring for a patient with a severe burn. The patient is scheduled to go to surgery for an autograft of the lower extremity. What should you include in the postoperative plan of care for this patient?

  A. Keep the surgical extremity flat.
  B. Keep a blanket over the extremity.
  C. Place the patient in prone position.
  D. Immobilize and elevate the extremity.
  D. Immobilize and elevate the extremity.

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  The grafted extremity should be immobilized and elevated for three to seven days. This allows the graft time to adhere to the wound bed and decreases edema. All other options can disrupt the graft site.

• Question 132:

  You have delegated the care of an older patient with hearing loss to a nursing assistant. You tell the nursing assistant that patients with this diagnosis:

  A. Are often distracted.
  B. Respond better to low pitched sounds.
  C. Have middle ear changes.
  D. Develop moist cerumen production.
  B. Respond better to low pitched sounds.

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  Older patients with hearing loss respond better to low pitch sounds. Age-related changes of the inner ear are called presbycusis. As a result of these changes the patient often loses the ability to hear high-pitched sounds.

• Question 133:

  You are caring for a patient who has taken a drug overdose. You must administer charcoal to the patient. You understand that the reason for giving charcoal is to:

  A. Induce vomiting
  B. Absorb toxins
  C. Decrease serum dug levels
  D. Cause quick evacuation of pill fragments
  B. Absorb toxins

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  The primary reason for administering charcoal is to prevent absorption of toxins into the system. Charcoal is not used to induce vomiting or diarrhea. It does not reduce current drug levels, but it may reduce future drug levels.

• Question 134:

  You are caring for an unconscious patient who has had an arterial blood gas drawn. The results reveal a pH of 7.30, low bicarbonate, a normal carbon dioxide level, normal oxygen level and an elevated potassium level. What would the diagnosis be for this patient based on the laboratory results?

  A. Metabolic acidosis
  B. Respiratory acidosis
  C. Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis
  D. Overcompensated respiratory acidosis
  A. Metabolic acidosis

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  This patient is in metabolic acidosis. With acidosis, the pH is always low. Low pH with low bicarbonate points to metabolic acidosis.

• Question 135:

  Which of the following would you want to include in an education session to the staff on HIV and AIDS?

  A. Newborn infants of HIV positive mothers usually test positive.
  B. The hematological system is usually attacked by HIV.
  C. With AIDS, T4 cells cannot form protective antibodies due to depleted B cells.
  D. T lymphocytes are destroyed because the virus attacks the immune system.
  D. T lymphocytes are destroyed because the virus attacks the immune system.

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  T lymphocytes are destroyed because the virus attacks the immune system. Infants born to mothers positive for HIV usually test positive for HIV antibodies not HIV virus. HIV attacks the immune system, not the hematological system. T4 cells are depleted in numbers and can not signal B cells.

• Question 136:

  You are caring for an alcoholic in withdrawal. Which symptoms would alert the nurse to delirium tremors?

  A. Hypertension, change in level of consciousness, hallucinations
  B. Hypotension, ataxia, hunger
  C. Stupor, agitation, muscular rigidity
  D. Hypotension, coarse hand tremors, agitation
  A. Hypertension, change in level of consciousness, hallucinations

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  Hypertension, change in level of consciousness and hallucinations are symptoms that the nurse would see if the patient is in delirium tremors. Other symptoms the nurse might see are anxiety, insomnia, anorexia, disorientation, agitation, fever and delusions.

• Question 137:

  Your patient with schizophrenia is taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine). She complains that her urine has turned dark. You know that this is caused by:

  A. Increased intake of acid-ash foods and liquids
  B. A urinary tract infection
  C. A normal side effect of the medication
  D. Medication toxicity
  C. A normal side effect of the medication

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  Dark urine is a normal side effect of chlorpromazine (Thorazine). This medication is an antipsychotic medication. To prevent patient from discontinuing medication, they should be made aware that this side effect is harmless.

• Question 138:

  You are caring for a patient who has had a right eye cataract removal. What discharge instruction would you want to include in the plan of care?

  A. Do not sleep on right side.
  B. Do not sleep on left side.
  C. Do not sleep with head elevated.
  D. Do wear glasses until physician says it is okay.
  A. Do not sleep on right side.

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  The patient should not sleep on the right side following surgery. The patient should be placed in a semi-Fowler position to minimize edema and intraocular pressure. The patient should wear glasses and a protective shield over the affected eye.

• Question 139:

  You are caring for a patient who has been stung by a bee. The patient has dyspnea, pruritis and localized swelling on the arm where he was stung. What would your priority intervention be for this patient?

  A. Remove the stinger.
  B. Place blankets over the patient.
  C. Listen for stridor and check the patient's tongue for swelling.
  D. Put the patient in the Trendelenburg position.
  C. Listen for stridor and check the patient's tongue for swelling.

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  The priority for this patient would be to assess for stridor and swelling of the tongue. The patient is displaying signs of anaphylactic reaction and will need to be treated immediately. Stridor and tongue swelling are signs of impending airway obstruction. Epinephrine will need to be administered to correct the problem.

• Question 140:

  You are conducting a teaching session for mothers at a local school on rubeola (measles). Which of the following would you not want to include in this education?

  A. Profuse runny nose, coughing and fever occur before the rash develops.
  B. The child may develop small, blue-white spots with a red base in the mouth
  C. Ears usually develop a rash first, which then spreads toward the feet.
  D. The communicable period usually ranges from 10 to 15 days after the rash appears.
  D. The communicable period usually ranges from 10 to 15 days after the rash appears.

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  The communicable period for Rubeola (measles) is 4 to 5 days after the rash appears. The incubation period is 10-15 days. The blue-white spots found in the mouth during Rubeola are called Koplik's spots.