AAPC AAPC-CPC Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

AAPC AAPC-CPC Online Questions & Answers

• Question 61:

  A 65-year-old male patient passed away due to unknown causes. An autopsy was ordered by the attending physician to determine the cause of death. The pathologist performed a gross and microscopic examination autopsy that includes the brain and spinal cord.

  What CPT(R) coding is reported?

  A. 88016
  B. 88027
  C. 88020
  D. 88028
  D. 88028

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  Explanation

  Autopsy CPT coding is based on the extent of the examination (gross only vs. gross and microscopic) and whether special anatomic components, such as brain and spinal cord, are included. The question states the pathologist performed both gross and microscopic examination and explicitly included the brain and spinal cord, which indicates a comprehensive autopsy service rather than a limited or gross-only autopsy.

  CPT 88028 represents a complete autopsy with gross and microscopic examination that includes examination of the central nervous system structures, brain and spinal cord, as part of the comprehensive scope. The other codes listed represent different autopsy levels or components that do not match the gross and microscopic examination plus CNS inclusion described.

  CPC exam approach: Anchor first on gross + microscopic, then look for wording that indicates a complete autopsy. When the stem highlights brain and spinal cord, it is signaling the higher-complexity comprehensive autopsy code selection.

  Therefore, 88028 is the correct CPT code.

• Question 62:

  A 5-year-old who has an allergy history experienced a possible reaction to peanuts. A quantitative, high-sensitive fluorescent enzyme immunoassay was used to measure specific IgE for recombinant peanut components. Results showed there was no reaction indicating the child has a peanut allergy.

  What lab test is reported?

  A. 86001
  B. 86008
  C. 86003
  D. 86005
  B. 86008

• Question 63:

  Which statement is NOT true regarding the ICD-10-CM coding guidelines for burns?

  A. Necrosis of burned skin should be coded as a non-healed burn.
  B. The burn codes are also for burns resulting from electricity and radiation.
  C. Sequence first the code that reflects the highest degree of burn when more than one burn is present.
  D. If the patient has burns of varying degrees in the same anatomic site, assign separate codes for each degree burn.
  D. If the patient has burns of varying degrees in the same anatomic site, assign separate codes for each degree burn.

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  Explanation

  According to ICD-10-CM burn guidelines: When burns of different degrees occur at the same anatomic site, only the highest degree is coded, not separate codes.

  The other statements are true: Necrosis is coded as a non-healed burn.

  Burn codes include electrical and radiation burns.

  The highest degree burn is sequenced first when more than one burn is present.

• Question 64:

  A three-year-old patient returns for stage 2 treatment for double right outlet syndrome. The surgeon removes a pulmonary artery band and performs transposition repair of the great vessels via aortic pulmonary reconstruction. Central cannulae are inserted for ECMO bypass, chemical cardioplegia is initiated, and a physician assistant monitors vitals and oxygenation until heart function resumes.

  What CPT(R) codes are reported for the surgery today?

  A. 33779-58, 33955-58, 33985-58
  B. 33778-78, 33953-78, 33985-78
  C. 33779-78, 33953-78, 33985-78
  D. 33778-58, 33955-58, 33985-58
  D. 33778-58, 33955-58, 33985-58

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  Explanation

  This is a planned staged congenital cardiac repair following prior pulmonary artery banding, so the correct postoperative modifier concept is staged/related (modifier -58), not an unplanned return-to-OR modifier (- 78). The operative service includes removal of the pulmonary artery band and arterial switch/transposition-type repair of the great vessels, captured in the 33778/33779 family in the answer choices. The case also describes use of ECMO with central cannulation and management during the procedure, which is reported with the appropriate ECMO initiation/management codes shown as 33955 and the monitoring/assistant-related component represented by 33985 in the choices. Because this is the second stage of care and described as planned definitive repair, modifier -58 is appropriate on the reported surgical services in these answer constructs. Option D correctly pairs the staged modifier (-58) with the appropriate congenital repair and ECMO-related coding listed in the question's options.

• Question 65:

  What CPT(R) coding is reported for a subtotal thyroidectomy for malignancy with radical neck dissection?

  A. 60260
  B. 60254
  C. 60220
  D. 60252
  B. 60254

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  Explanation

  60254 = Subtotal thyroidectomy for malignancy with radical neck dissection

  60260 = Total thyroidectomy

  60220 = Partial thyroidectomy, benign

  60252 = Total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection

• Question 66:

  A patient has a malfunctioning ventricular electrode. The operative report reflects that the cardiologist made an incision into the subclavicular pocket, which housed a single chamber pacemaker. He detached the malfunctioning ventricular electrode, removed it from the patient, and made the decision to have a thoracic surgeon implant an epicardial lead later in the day (no new hardware was implanted). He then closed the skin pocket with multiple layers of suture.

  Which CPT code is reported for the cardiologist's service?

  A. 33234
  B. 33249
  C. 33235
  D. 33236
  B. 33249

• Question 67:

  Mrs. Wilder presents with right and left leg swelling. Venous thrombosis imaging of each leg is done and shows deep venous embolism and thrombosis in each leg.

  What CPT(R) and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

  A. 93970, I82.403
  B. 93971-50, I82.403
  C. 93971-RT, 93971-LT, I82.401, I82.402
  D. 93970, I82.401, I82.402
  B. 93971-50, I82.403

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  Explanation

  93970 = Duplex scan, bilateral extremity veins.

  I82.403 = Acute embolism and thrombosis of unspecified deep veins of bilateral lower extremities.

  Do not use modifier -50 when a bilateral code already exists.

• Question 68:

  Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question: View MR 005271

  What CPT(R) coding is reported?

  A. 55700
  B. 55706
  C. 55706, 76942
  D. 55700, 76942
  C. 55706, 76942

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  Explanation

  CPT Code 55706: Biopsy, prostate; needle, transperineal, stereotactic template guided saturation sampling, including imaging guidance. This code accurately describes the procedure performed. The documentation clearly states that a stereotactic template was used to guide the biopsy needles, and multiple samples were taken as saturation biopsies. This code includes imaging guidance. CPT Code 76942: Ultrasonic guidance for needle placement (e.g., biopsy, aspiration, injection, localization device), imaging supervision and interpretation. Although ultrasound guidance may be documented during the procedure, 55706 already includes imaging guidance and 76942 should not be reported separately with 55706 for the biopsy guidance.

  References:

  CPT Code 55706: Biopsy, prostate

  needle, transperineal, stereotactic template guided saturation sampling, including imaging guidance.

  CPT Code 76942: Ultrasonic guidance for needle placement.

  NCCI Edits: Always check the most current NCCI edits to confirm coding combinations.

  Therefore, the correct answer is Option B. 55706.

• Question 69:

  A 6-month-old child was brought to the hospital with severe breathing difficulties. After testing, the child was diagnosed with tracheal stenosis present from birth. The pediatric surgeon performed a tracheoplasty (surgical widening of the trachea).

  What CPT(R) and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

  A. 00320, 99100, Q32.1
  B. 00326, 99100, J39.8
  C. 00326, Q32.1
  D. 00320, J39.8
  A. 00320, 99100, Q32.1

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  Explanation

  The diagnosis "tracheal stenosis present from birth" is a congenital malformation, which is coded with Q32.1 (congenital stenosis of trachea) rather than an acquired tracheal disorder code. For anesthesia coding, tracheoplasty is a major airway/tracheal surgical procedure and maps to the appropriate airway/ trachea anesthesia category represented by 00320 in the answer set. Because the patient is an infant (6 months old), anesthesia qualifies for the extreme age add-on 99100 (anesthesia for patient of extreme age, under 1 year or over 70 years).

  Options including J39.8 reflect an acquired or other tracheal disorder category rather than congenital stenosis, which conflicts with "from birth." Options that omit 99100 miss the age-related qualifying circumstance. CPC exam strategy: Always code congenital conditions with Q codes when documented as present from birth, and remember 99100 for patients under 1 year when anesthesia qualifying circumstances are reported.

  Therefore, 00320, 99100, Q32.1 is correct.

• Question 70:

  A 42-year-old male is diagnosed with a left renal mass. An abdominal incision along with rib resection is made to expose and access the kidney. The left kidney is removed, along with surrounding fat, adrenal gland, lymph nodes in the area, and the incision site is sutured.

  What CPT(R) code is reported for this procedure?

  A. 50230
  B. 50545
  C. 50543
  D. 50220
  A. 50230

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  Explanation

  50230 - Radical nephrectomy, including removal of kidney, perirenal fat, adrenal gland, and regional lymph nodes.

  Open approach with rib resection.

  Correct for extensive removal beyond simple nephrectomy.

  Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

  50545 / 50543 - Laparoscopic/robotic approaches.

  50220 - Simple nephrectomy only.