AAPC AAPC-CPC Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

AAPC AAPC-CPC Online Questions & Answers

• Question 371:

  An established patient presents with fever and sore throat. Rapid strep test is positive.

  What CPT(R) and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

  A. 99212-25, 87880, R50.9, J02.9
  B. 99212-25, 87880, J02.0, R50.9, J02.9
  C. 99213-25, 87880, J02.0
  D. 99213-25, 87880, J02.0, R50.9, J02.9
  C. 99213-25, 87880, J02.0

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  Explanation

  99213-25 = Established patient office or other outpatient E/M service with a separately identifiable procedure.

  87880 = Rapid strep test.

  J02.0 = Streptococcal pharyngitis.

  Symptoms such as fever and sore throat are not reported separately when a definitive diagnosis is established.

• Question 372:

  A 46-year-old female is admitted to the hospital by her urologist for a left ureteral calculus. The urologist visits her again on day two and performs a low number and complexity of problems addressed, minimal data reviewed, and moderate risk of complications.

  What E/M service is reported for day two?

  A. 99233
  B. 99232
  C. 99221
  D. 99231
  B. 99232

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  Explanation

  On day two, the urologist provided a subsequent hospital inpatient evaluation and management (E/M) service for a hospitalized patient with a low level for the number and complexity of problems addressed, minimal complexity for data reviewed, and moderate risk of complications.

  CPT(R) code 99232 is for a subsequent hospital inpatient or observation care E/M service with moderate medical decision making (MDM). This matches the description provided, as the MDM includes a low number of problems, minimal data, and moderate risk.

  Why Other Options are incorrect: Code 99233 is for a subsequent hospital inpatient or observation care visit with high complexity MDM, which does not align with the facts provided here.

  Code 99221 is for initial hospital inpatient or observation care, not a subsequent visit.

  Code 99231 represents a lower level of subsequent hospital inpatient or observation care with straightforward or low complexity MDM, which does not meet the moderate risk level in this scenario.

  AAPC and CPT(R) coding

  Guidelines: AAPC and CPT(R)guidelines indicate 99232 as appropriate for subsequent hospital visits with moderate MDM, such as this visit with moderate risk.

  Therefore, the correct answer is B. 99232.

• Question 373:

  What is the ICD-10-CM code for a medial meniscus tear of the left knee due to a recent football injury?

  A. M23.204
  B. S83.232A
  C. S83.242A
  D. M23.202
  B. S83.232A

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  Explanation

  A "recent football injury" indicates an acute traumatic injury rather than a chronic or old derangement.

  Acute meniscus tears are coded from the S83.2- category, tear of meniscus, current injury, not the M23.- category, which is used for derangement of meniscus due to an old tear or injury. The question specifies medial meniscus, left knee, and implies an initial encounter for the acute injury, so the correct code must include laterality and the 7th character A for initial encounter. S83.242A corresponds to other tear of medial meniscus, current injury, left knee, initial encounter. S83.232A corresponds to a complex tear of the medial meniscus, current injury, left knee, initial encounter, which is not documented in the question. M23.202 and M23.204 are derangement codes typically used for old tears or chronic conditions, not an acute recent sports injury.

  CPC exam tip: "recent injury" supports S-codes; "old tear/derangement" supports M23.- codes.

  Therefore, the correct answer is Option C. S83.242A.

• Question 374:

  A patient that delivered her second child vaginally has a history of having a previous cesarean delivery for the first child.

  What CPT code is reported for the delivery of the second child with antepartum care and postpartum care with the same provider?

  A. 59610
  B. 59614
  C. 59410
  D. 59400
  A. 59610

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  Explanation

  Procedure and CPT Code Selection: The patient delivered her second child vaginally after a previous cesarean delivery. This is a Vaginal Birth After Cesarean (VBAC).

  Code 59610 is reported for routine obstetric care including antepartum care, vaginal delivery (after previous cesarean delivery), and postpartum care.

  Rationale for Excluding Other Options: Code 59614 is for VBAC delivery and postpartum care only (no antepartum care).

  Code 59400 is for routine vaginal delivery including antepartum and postpartum care, but does not apply when there is a history of previous cesarean delivery.

  Code 59410 is for vaginal delivery with postpartum care only and does not include antepartum care or VBAC context.

  AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines: When antepartum care, delivery, and postpartum care are all performed by the same provider in a VBAC case, report 59610.

  Final Answer: 59610

• Question 375:

  Which bone is located in the lower extremity?

  A. Humerus
  B. Femur
  C. Radius
  D. Ulna
  B. Femur

• Question 376:

  The CPT code book provides full descriptions of medical procedures, although some descriptions require the use of a semicolon (;) to distinguish among closely related procedures.

  What is the full description of CPT code 69644?

  A. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
  B. Without ossicular chain reconstruction with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
  C. With intact or reconstructed canal wall with ossicular chain reconstruction
  D. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); without ossicular chain reconstruction with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
  A. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction

• Question 377:

  A patient with erectile dysfunction is presenting for same-day surgery for removal and replacement of an inflatable penile prosthesis.

  What CPT(R) code is reported for this service?

  A. 54401
  B. 54400
  C. 4417
  D. 54416
  D. 54416

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  Explanation

  The documented service is the same-session removal and replacement of an inflatable penile prosthesis for erectile dysfunction. CPT(R) code 54416 specifically describes removal and replacement of a multi-component, inflatable, penile prosthesis and is the appropriate code for this combined procedure.

  Exclusion of Other Codes:

  CPT(R) code 54401 represents insertion of a multi-component inflatable penile prosthesis only and does not include removal of an existing device; therefore, it is not appropriate. CPT(R) code 54400 represents insertion of a non-inflatable, malleable, penile prosthesis and does not apply when an inflatable device is documented.

  Code 54417 is not appropriate for this procedure.

  Coding Guidelines:

  Per CPT(R)/AAPC guidance, when both removal and replacement of a penile prosthesis are performed during the same operative session, a single comprehensive code is reported. CPT(R) code 54416 includes both components of the service; separate reporting of removal and insertion codes is not appropriate.

  Final Answer: 54416

• Question 378:

  A pediatric patient with a congenital double inlet ventricle undergoes corrective cardiac surgery. The surgeon performs a modified Fontan procedure to redirect systemic venous blood flow directly to the pulmonary arteries as part of staged repair for a single-ventricle physiology.

  What CPT(R) and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

  A. 33615, Q20.4
  B. 33617, Q20.4
  C. 33615, Q20.1, Q20.2
  D. 33617, Q20.1, Q20.2
  A. 33615, Q20.4

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  Explanation

  The procedure documented is a modified Fontan procedure, reported with 33615 according to the choices given.

  The congenital diagnosis documented is double inlet ventricle, which is reported with Q20.4.

  Why the other options are incorrect based on the documentation provided: 33617 is not supported by the stated procedure in the choices.

  Q20.1 is not supported by the documentation.

  Q20.2 does not describe double inlet ventricle.

  Therefore, the best match is 33615, Q20.4.

• Question 379:

  A patient is having an orchiectomy.

  Which part of the body is being operated on?

  A. Scrotum
  B. Testicle
  C. Epididymis
  D. Prostate
  B. Testicle

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  Explanation

  The key is the root and suffix: orch/o, or orchi/o, refers to the testis or testicle, and -ectomy means surgical removal. Therefore, orchiectomy is the surgical removal of a testicle, or both testicles, depending on context.

  The distractors are nearby male reproductive structures that commonly appear in anatomy questions.

  The scrotum is the external sac that houses the testes. Procedures there might be scrotoplasty or scrotal surgery, not orchiectomy.

  The epididymis is the structure attached to the testicle where sperm mature and are stored. Removal would be epididymectomy.

  The prostate is a gland at the base of the bladder. Removal would be prostatectomy.

  On the CPC exam, terminology questions often use anatomic proximity to tempt you into picking a nearby structure. Always lock onto the combining form first, then confirm the procedure suffix.

• Question 380:

  Dr. Burns sees newborn baby James at the birthing center on the same day after the cesarean delivery.

  Dr. Burns examined baby James, the maternal and newborn history, ordered appropriate blood test tests and hearing screening. He met with the family at the end of the exam.

  How would Dr.

  Bums report his services?

  A. 99463
  B. 99460
  C. 99461
  D. 99462
  B. 99460