AAPC AAPC-CPC Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

AAPC AAPC-CPC Online Questions & Answers

• Question 201:

  A patient presents to the pulmonologist's office for the first time with coughing and shortness of breath. The patient has a history of asthma. The physician performs a medically appropriate history and exam. The following labs are ordered: CBC, arterial blood gas, and sputum culture. The pulmonologist assesses the patient with a new diagnosis of COPD. The patient is given a prescription for the inhaler Breo Ellipta.

  What E/M code is reported?

  A. 99214
  B. 99203
  C. 99204
  D. 99213
  C. 99204

• Question 202:

  A 57-year-old woman with a physical status of 3 receives general endotracheal anesthesia for a panniculectomy. The anesthesiologist personally performs the entire anesthesia service.

  What CPT(R) coding is reported for the anesthesia?

  A. 00800-AA-P3
  B. 00802-AA-P3
  C. 00800-P3, 99140-P3
  D. 00802, 99140-AA-P3
  A. 00800-AA-P3

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  Explanation

  To code anesthesia services, select the correct CPT(R) anesthesia code based on the procedure, modifiers, and the patient's physical status.

  00800 represents anesthesia for procedures on the lower abdomen, not otherwise specified, which includes procedures such as a panniculectomy.

  Code 00802 is not appropriate here because it is used for lower abdominal procedures involving major lower abdominal vessels, which does not apply to a panniculectomy.

  Modifier AA indicates that the anesthesia services were personally performed by the anesthesiologist, as stated in the scenario.

  Modifier P3 reflects a physical status of 3, which indicates a patient with severe systemic disease.

  The emergency modifier 99140 is not appropriate because there is no indication that the procedure was performed under emergency conditions.

  Thus, the correct answer is A. 00800-AA-P3.

• Question 203:

  A patient presents with 26 skin tags on the neck and shoulder. The provider removes all using a scissoring technique.

  What CPT(R) coding is reported?

  A. 11200, 11201 x2
  B. 11200, 11201-51
  C. 11200, 11201 x25
  D. 11200, 11201
  A. 11200, 11201 x2

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  Explanation

  11200 = removal of up to 15 skin tags 11201 = each additional 10 lesions or part thereof 26 lesions = 15 + 11 11201 x2

• Question 204:

  Which CPT(R) code can append modifier 50?

  A. 75572
  B. 77066
  C. 73115
  D. 77065
  C. 73115

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  Explanation

  Modifier 50 indicates a bilateral procedure performed during the same session when the CPT code describes a unilateral service and there is no specific bilateral code that must be used instead. Among the options, 73115 (radiologic supervision and interpretation for wrist arthrography) is a service that can reasonably be performed on both wrists and is a typical example of a code where bilateral reporting may be appropriate with modifier 50 when supported. 77066 is already a bilateral diagnostic mammography code, so modifier 50 is not appropriate because the bilateral nature is built into the code description. 77065 is unilateral diagnostic mammography, but CPT provides the bilateral option (77066), so the correct CPT approach for both breasts is to report the bilateral code rather than append modifier 50 to the unilateral code. 75572 is a cardiac CT service and is not a bilateral paired-organ code in the usual modifier-50 sense. CPC exam tip: use modifier 50 for true paired structures when no bilateral code exists and payer rules permit.

• Question 205:

  A patient presents to the surgical suite for a planned sterilization procedure via a bilateral excisional vasectomy.

  What is the correct CPT(R) code and diagnosis code for the service?

  A. 55250, Z30.2
  B. 55250, Z30.012
  C. 55250-50, Z30.2
  D. 55250-50, Z30.012
  A. 55250, Z30.2

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  Explanation

  1. Procedure and CPT(R)

  Code Selection:

  The patient underwent a bilateral excisional vasectomy for sterilization.

  CPT(R) code 55250 represents a bilateral vasectomy with excision, which includes postoperative care.

  The code already implies a bilateral procedure, so it is not necessary to add modifier -50 for bilateral designation.

  2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

  ICD-10-CM code Z30.2 is used for an encounter for sterilization and is the correct code to report for a planned sterilization procedure, such as a vasectomy.

  Code Z30.012 is not appropriate for a planned male sterilization procedure.

  3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

  55250-50, in options C and D, is unnecessary because CPT(R) code 55250 inherently covers a bilateral vasectomy, and applying modifier -50 is redundant.

  Z30.012, in options B and D, is incorrect because it does not apply to this planned vasectomy.

  4. AAPC and CPT(R)

  Coding Guidelines:

  According to AAPC guidelines, 55250 is reported without a bilateral modifier, as the procedure inherently covers both sides. Additionally, Z30.2 is the correct ICD-10-CM code for sterilization procedures.

  Thus, the correct answer based on CPT(R) and ICD-10-CM guidelines is A. 55250, Z30.2.

• Question 206:

  The evisceration of ocular contents was performed using a surgical microscope for enhanced visualization.

  The procedure was performed on the left eye, and an implant was not placed in the ocular cavity.

  What CPT(R) coding is reported?

  A. 65093-LT
  B. 65091-LT, 69990-51
  C. 65093-LT, 69990
  D. 65091-LT
  D. 65091-LT

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  Explanation

  Procedure and CPT(R)

  Code Selection: The procedure performed was an evisceration of ocular contents without the placement of an implant. The surgical microscope was used for enhanced visualization, but this does not require a separate code if the primary procedure code includes it inherently.

  CPT(R) code 65091 is used for an evisceration of the ocular contents without implant placement. This code correctly describes the procedure performed on the left eye.

  Modifier:

  Modifier LT is added to indicate that the procedure was performed on the left eye.

  Exclusion of Code 69990:

  Code 69990 is for the use of an operating microscope, but it should not be billed separately when it is used as part of a procedure where enhanced visualization is typical or expected, such as an evisceration procedure. According to CPT(R) guidelines, 69990 is not separately reported when the microscope is used for visualization in procedures where its use is considered part of the standard of care.

  Rationale for Excluding Other Options: Code 65093 is for an evisceration with implant placement, which does not apply since no implant was used.

  Options B and C incorrectly include 69990, which is not separately reportable in this scenario.

  AAPC and CPT(R)

  Coding Guidelines: According to AAPC and CPT(R) coding guidelines, 65091 is sufficient to capture the procedure without the need to add code 69990 for the microscope.

  Therefore, the correct answer is D. 65091-LT.

• Question 207:

  A 65-year-old gentleman presents for refill of medications and follow-up for his chronic conditions. The patient indicates good medicine compliance. No new symptoms or complaints.

  Appropriate history and exam are obtained. Labs that were ordered from previous visit were reviewed and discussed with patient. The following are the diagnoses and treatment:

  Hypokalemia - stable. Refill Potassium 20 MEQ

  Hypertension - blood pressure remaining stable. Patient states home readings have been in line with goals. Refill prescription Lisinopril.

  Esophageal Reflux - Patient denies any new symptoms. Stable condition. Continue taking over the counter Prevacid oral capsules, 1 every day.

  Patient is instructed to follow up in 3 months. Labs will be obtained prior to visit.

  What CPT code is reported?

  A. 99212
  B. 99396
  C. 99397
  D. 99214
  C. 99397

• Question 208:

  A physician performs excisional debridement on multiple wounds: Lower back: 12 sq cm, involving fascia.

  Left shoulder: 8 sq cm, involving subcutaneous tissue.

  Left lower leg: 16 sq cm, involving subcutaneous tissue.

  What CPT(R) codes are reported?

  A. 11043, 11046
  B. 11042, 11045
  C. 11043, 11042-59, 11045
  D. 11043, 11042-59, 11042-59
  C. 11043, 11042-59, 11045

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  Explanation

  Fascia debridement is reported with 11043 for the first 20 sq cm.

  Subcutaneous debridement is reported separately with 11042 for the first 20 sq cm.

  The left shoulder and left lower leg subcutaneous debridement areas are combined by depth: 8 sq cm + 16

  sq cm = 24 sq cm.

  11045 is reported for each additional 20 sq cm, or part thereof, of subcutaneous debridement.

  Multiple depths are reported separately.

  Modifier -59 may be appended to indicate a distinct procedural service when required by payer rules.

  Therefore, the correct coding is 11043, 11042-59, 11045.

• Question 209:

  What does the term "manipulation" refer to in the context of fracture or dislocation treatment?

  A. The process of stopping bleeding from a fracture or dislocation.
  B. The process of applying force or traction to align a fracture or dislocation.
  C. The process of closing a wound associated with a fracture or dislocation.
  D. The surgical removal of the fractured or dislocated bone.
  B. The process of applying force or traction to align a fracture or dislocation.

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  Explanation

  In CPT(R)fracture and dislocation care, manipulation refers to the application of force or traction to restore a bone or joint to its normal anatomic position.

  This is a key distinction between with manipulation and without manipulation, which directly affects CPT code selection (e.g., 23505 vs. 23500).

  Manipulation may be performed closed (no incision) or open (with incision).

• Question 210:

  A 19-year-old college student is seen by his primary care physician for an annual exam. His last exam with the primary care physician was two years ago. He has no complaints.

  What CPT code is reported?

  A. 99395
  B. 99385
  C. 99384
  D. 99394
  B. 99385