IIA Certified Internal IIA-CIA-PART2 Questions & Answers

• Question 1:

  Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

  A. Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control self-assessments services.

  B. Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers.

  C. Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit hours.

  D. Internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only if the other assurance providers report directly to the board.

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 2:

  Which of the following is the primary reason for internal auditors to conduct interim communications with management of the area under review?

  A. To demonstrate good project oversight.

  B. To provide timely discussion of results.

  C. To demonstrate internal auditor proficiency.

  D. To follow up on previously requested information.

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 3:

  The chief audit executive is completing the audit plan. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the best method of selecting the audits to be completed?

  A. A rotational audit plan with core audits being done every two to four years.

  B. A risk-based audit plan that also covers important operational areas.

  C. An audit plan based upon the previous audit results and findings.

  D. An audit plan based upon responses from management on key risk areas.

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 4:

  An internal auditor is testing the success of the IT support department in meeting the service levels guaranteed to small, medium, and large customers. The customer's size classification is based on its annual expenditures with the organization and the nature and extent of services it receives. Which of the following sampling techniques would be the most suitable to select customers for this test?

  A. Cluster sampling.

  B. Interval sampling.

  C. Stop-and-go sampling.

  D. Stratified sampling.

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 5:

  Which of the following are advantages of flowcharts over internal control questionnaires?

  1.

  Flowcharts reduce the need to test whether employees are observing internal control processes.

  2.

  Flowcharts provide a visual depiction of the processes in the area under review.

  3.

  Flowcharts identify and prioritize internal control design weaknesses.

  4.

  Flowcharts highlight the control points to help internal auditors evaluate control design.

  A. 1 and 3 only.

  B. 2 and 4 only.

  C. 1, 2, and 3 only.

  D. 2, 3, and 4 only.

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 6:

  Which of the following sampling techniques is typically used when an internal auditor wants to test a large sample for fraud?

  A. Stratified sampling.

  B. Haphazard sampling.

  C. Probability-proportional-to-size sampling.

  D. Discovery sampling.

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 7:

  When the internal audit activity does not have sufficient time to complete its usual root cause analysis, which of the following is most appropriate?

  A. The chief audit executive may recommend that management conduct further work to identify the root cause and address the issue.

  B. Internal auditors should finish the engagement without conducting the root cause analysis and draft the audit report, though the report would not be considered complete until the analysis is concluded.

  C. Internal auditors must adjust their future engagement schedule to ensure that the root cause analysis is always performed before the engagement is concluded.

  D. Internal auditors should instead perform a Pareto rule analysis.

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 8:

  During a consulting engagement, an internal auditor wants to determine whether all principal stakeholders are involved in a project. Which tool should the auditor use?

  A. RACI (responsible, accountable, consult, and inform) chart.

  B. Flowchart.

  C. SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis.

  D. Workflow analysis.

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 9:

  Which of the following should be the focus of the effect section of the preliminary observations document?

  A. Residual risk.

  B. Inherent risk.

  C. Compensating controls.

  D. Control activities.

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 10:

  The internal auditors available to perform the engagement do not have sufficient skills related to the area under review. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the chief audit executive to take?

  A. Continue the engagement with the available staff, providing more hands-on supervision than usual

  B. Limit the objectives and scope of the engagement to align them with the skills available among the current staff.

  C. Cosource the performance of the engagement using personnel in the area that will be reviewed to supplement the knowledge of the staff and complete the engagement.

  D. Supplement the internal auditors assigned to the engagement by bringing onto the engagement team a consultant who is independent of the area under review and has the missing expertise.

  Correct Answer: D