CompTIA CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Questions & Answers

• Question 1021:

  Which of the following software security best practices would prevent an attacker from being able to run arbitrary SQL commands within a web application? (Choose two.)

  A. Parameterized queries

  B. Session management

  C. Input validation

  D. Output encoding

  E. Data protection

  F. Authentication

  Correct Answer: AC

  Reference: https://www.ptsecurity.com/ww-en/analytics/knowledge-base/how-to-prevent-sql-injection- attacks/

• Question 1022:

  A cyber-incident response analyst is investigating a suspected cryptocurrency miner on a company's server. Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take?

  A. Create a full disk image of the server's hard drive to look for the file containing the malware.

  B. Run a manual antivirus scan on the machine to look for known malicious software.

  C. Take a memory snapshot of the machine to capture volatile information stored in memory.

  D. Start packet capturing to look for traffic that could be indicative of command and control from the miner.

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 1023:

  An information security analyst is compiling data from a recent penetration test and reviews the following output:

  

  The analyst wants to obtain more information about the web-based services that are running on the target. Which of the following commands would MOST likely provide the needed information?

  A. ping -t 10.79.95.173.rdns.datacenters.com

  B. telnet 10.79.95.173 443

  C. ftpd 10.79.95.173.rdns.datacenters.com 443

  D. tracert 10.79.95.173

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 1024:

  A compliance officer of a large organization has reviewed the firm's vendor management program but has discovered there are no controls defined to evaluate third-party risk or hardware source authenticity. The compliance officer wants to gain some level of assurance on a recurring basis regarding the implementation of controls by third parties.

  Which of the following would BEST satisfy the objectives defined by the compliance officer? (Choose two.)

  A. Executing vendor compliance assessments against the organization's security controls

  B. Executing NDAs prior to sharing critical data with third parties

  C. Soliciting third-party audit reports on an annual basis

  D. Maintaining and reviewing the organizational risk assessment on a quarterly basis

  E. Completing a business impact assessment for all critical service providers

  F. Utilizing DLP capabilities at both the endpoint and perimeter levels

  Correct Answer: AC

• Question 1025:

  A cybersecurity analyst is contributing to a team hunt on an organization's endpoints. Which of the following should the analyst do FIRST?

  A. Write detection logic.

  B. Establish a hypothesis.

  C. Profile the threat actors and activities.

  D. Perform a process analysis.

  Correct Answer: C

  Reference: https://www.cybereason.com/blog/blog-the-eight-steps-to-threat-hunting

• Question 1026:

  A security analyst received a SIEM alert regarding high levels of memory consumption for a critical system. After several attempts to remediate the issue, the system went down. A root cause analysis revealed a bad actor forced the

  application to not reclaim memory. This caused the system to be depleted of resources.

  Which of the following BEST describes this attack?

  A. Injection attack

  B. Memory corruption

  C. Denial of service

  D. Array attack

  Correct Answer: C

  Reference: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/memory-corruption

• Question 1027:

  An analyst is performing penetration testing and vulnerability assessment activities against a new vehicle automation platform. Which of the following is MOST likely an attack vector that is being utilized as part of the testing and assessment?

  A. FaaS

  B. RTOS

  C. SoC

  D. GPS

  E. CAN bus

  Correct Answer: E

• Question 1028:

  An information security analyst observes anomalous behavior on the SCADA devices in a power plant. This behavior results in the industrial generators overheating and destabilizing the power supply. Which of the following would BEST identify potential indicators of compromise?

  A. Use Burp Suite to capture packets to the SCADA device's IP.

  B. Use tcpdump to capture packets from the SCADA device IP.

  C. Use Wireshark to capture packets between SCADA devices and the management system.

  D. Use Nmap to capture packets from the management system to the SCADA devices.

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 1029:

  Which of the following would MOST likely be included in the incident response procedure after a security breach of customer PII?

  A. Human resources

  B. Public relations

  C. Marketing

  D. Internal network operations center

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 1030:

  An analyst is working with a network engineer to resolve a vulnerability that was found in a piece of legacy hardware, which is critical to the operation of the organization's production line. The legacy hardware does not have third-party support, and the OEM manufacturer of the controller is no longer in operation. The analyst documents the activities and verifies these actions prevent remote exploitation of the vulnerability. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate to remediate the controller?

  A. Segment the network to constrain access to administrative interfaces.

  B. Replace the equipment that has third-party support.

  C. Remove the legacy hardware from the network.

  D. Install an IDS on the network between the switch and the legacy equipment.

  Correct Answer: A