Microsoft 98-367 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Microsoft 98-367 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 241:

  You work as a network administrator for an insurance company called InZed Inc. The company has developed a corporate policy that requires all machines to use the IPSec security protocol. If the computer they are logging in from does not follow this corporate policy, they will be denied access to the network. Which of the following can you set up to help enforce the corporate policy?

  A. Server Access Protection
  B. System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)
  C. Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit
  D. Network Access Protection
  D. Network Access Protection

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  The advantage of using Hyper-V on Windows Server 2008 is that a user can use many of the services offered with the Windows Server 2008 environment. One such service is the Network Access Protection (NAP) feature, which allows you to quarantine machines that do not meet specific network or corporate policies. The noncompliant machines will not be allowed to access the network utility unless and until they comply with the organization's policies.

• Question 242:

  Which of the following infects the computer and then hides itself from detection by antivirus software?

  A. EICAR virus
  B. Boot-sector virus
  C. Macro virus
  D. Stealth virus
  D. Stealth virus

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  A stealth virus is a file virus. It infects the computer and then hides itself from detection by antivirus software. It uses various mechanisms to avoid detection by antivirus software. It hides itself in computer memory after infecting the computer.

  It also masks itself from applications or utilities. It uses various tricks to appear that the computer has not lost any memory and the file size has not been changed. The virus may save a copy of original and uninfected data. When the anti-virus

  program tries to check the files that have been affected, the virus shows only the uninfected data. This virus generally infects .COM and .EXE files. Answer: B is incorrect. A boot sector virus infects the master boot files of the hard disk or

  floppy disk. Boot record programs are responsible for booting the operating system and the boot sector virus copies these programs into another part of the hard disk or overwrites these files. Therefore, when the floppy or the hard disk boots,

  the virus infects the computer.

  Answer: C is incorrect. A macro virus is a virus that consists of a macro code which infects the system. A Macro virus can infect a system rapidly. Since this virus has VB event handlers, it is dynamic in nature and displays random activation.

  The victim has only to open a file having a macro virus in order to infect the system with the virus. DMV, Nuclear, and Word Concept are some good examples of macro viruses.

  Answer: A is incorrect. The EICAR (EICAR Standard Anti-Virus Test File) virus is a file that is used to test the response of computer antivirus (AV) programs. The rationale behind it is to allow people, companies, and antivirus programmers to

  test their software without having to use a real computer virus that could cause actual damage should the antivirus not respond correctly. The file is simply a text file of either 68 or 70 bytes that is a legitimate executable file called a COM file

  that can be run by Microsoft operating systems and some work-alikes (except for 64-bit due to 16-bit limitations), including OS/2. When executed, it will print "EICAR- STANDARD-ANTIVIRUS-TEST-FILE!" and then stop. The string used in the

  EICAR virus is as follows:

• Question 243:

  In which of the following is the file audit events are written when auditing is enabled?

  A. File system ACL
  B. Biometric device
  C. Network Access Control List
  D. Security event log
  D. Security event log

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  The various enabled file auditing events are documented and written in the security event log Answer: A is incorrect. A filesystem ACL is deifned as a data structure (usually a table) that contains entries specifying individual user or group rights to specific system objects like programs, processes, or files. These entries are known as access control entries (ACEs) in the Microsoft Windows NT, OpenVMS, Unix-like, and Mac OS X operating systems and each of the accessible object contains an identifier to its ACL. The permissions are used to find the particular access rights, such as whether a user is able to read from, write to, or execute an object. Answer: C is incorrect. Network Access Control List is defined as a set of rules applied to port numbers or network daemon names that are available on a host or other layer 3, and attached with a list of hosts and networks permitted to use the various defined service. The individual servers and routers can have network ACLs. It is used to control both inbound and outbound traffic as firewall does. Answer: B is incorrect. A biometric device is used for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more intrinsic, physical, or behavioral traits. Biometrics is used as a form of identity access management and access control. It is also used to identify individuals in groups that are under surveillance. Biometric characteristics can be divided into two main classes: 1.Physiological: These devices are related to the shape of the body. These are not limited to the fingerprint, face recognition, DNA, hand and palm geometry, and iris recognition, which has largely replaced the retina and odor/scent. 2.Behavioral: These are related to the behavior of a person. They are not limited to the typing rhythm, gait, and voice.

• Question 244:

  Before you deploy Network Access Protection (NAP), you must install:

  A. Internet Information Server (IIS)
  B. Network Policy Server (NPS)
  C. Active Directory Federation Services
  D. Windows Update Service
  B. Network Policy Server (NPS)

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  Reference: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb681008.aspx

• Question 245:

  Many Internet sites that you visit require a user name and password. How should you secure these passwords?

  A. Save them to a text file
  B. Enable session caching
  C. Configure the browser to save passwords
  D. Save them to an encrypted file
  E. Reuse the same password
  D. Save them to an encrypted file

• Question 246:

  Which of the following are the features of security level in the Restricted Sites zone

  A. The protection against harmful content is provided.
  B. The maximum safeguards are used.
  C. Most of the features are disabled.
  D. The default security level is low.
  A. The protection against harmful content is provided.
  B. The maximum safeguards are used.
  C. Most of the features are disabled.

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  Answer: C, B, and A

  The various features of security level in the Restricted Sites zone are as follows:

  1.The default security level is high.

  2.Most of the features are disabled.

  3.The maximum safeguards are used.

  4.The protection against harmful content is provided.

• Question 247:

  Which of the following can be installed and configured to prevent suspicious emails from entering the user's network?

  A. Kerberos
  B. Single sign-on (SSO)
  C. TCP/IP protocol
  D. Microsoft Forefront and Threat Management Gateway
  D. Microsoft Forefront and Threat Management Gateway

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  To prevent suspicious emails from entering the network, it is required to install Microsoft Forefront and Threat Management Gateway and configure it so that it can block any malicious emails. Exchange server has many spam filtering tools but

  Forefront and TMG are additional security measures used for enhancing the protection of the system.

  Answer: B is incorrect. Single sign-on (SSO) is defined as a mechanism in which a single action of user authentication and authorization is used to allow a user to access all computers and systems where he got a access permission, without

  entering passwords for multiple times.

  Answer: A is incorrect. Kerberos is defined as a secure method used for authenticating a request for a service in a computer network. Answer: C is incorrect. TCP/IP protocol is used to define the rule computers are required to follow for

  communicating with each other over the internet.

• Question 248:

  Which of the following can be implemented to decrease the number of times a user is required to be authenticated for access a particular resource?

  A. TCP/IP protocol
  B. Network Directory Access Protocol
  C. Kerberos
  D. Single Sign-on (SSO)
  D. Single Sign-on (SSO)

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  Single sign-on (SSO) is defined as a mechanism in which a single action of user authentication and authorization is used to allow a user to access all computers and systems where he got a access permission, without entering passwords for

  multiple times.

  Answer: C is incorrect. Kerberos is defined as a secure method used for authenticating a request for a service in a computer network. Answer: A is incorrect. TCP/IP protocol is used to define the rule computers are required to follow for

  communicating with each other over the internet. Answer: B is incorrect. This is an invalid Answer:

• Question 249:

  You are trying to connect to an FTP server on the Internet from a computer in a school lab. You cannot get a connection. You try on another computer with the same results. The computers in the lab are able to browse the Internet.

  You are able to connect to this FTP server from home.

  What could be blocking the connection to the server?

  A. A layer-2 switch
  B. A wireless access point
  C. A firewall
  D. A layer-2 hub
  C. A firewall

• Question 250:

  Which is the minimum requirement to create BitLocker-To-Go media on a client computer?

  A. Windows XP Professional Service Pack 3
  B. Windows Vista Enterprise Edition
  C. Windows 7 Enterprise Edition
  D. Windows 2000 Professional Service Pack 4
  A. Windows XP Professional Service Pack 3