Exam Details

  • Exam Code
    :350-401
  • Exam Name
    :Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
  • Certification
    :CCNP Enterprise
  • Vendor
    :Cisco
  • Total Questions
    :1457 Q&As
  • Last Updated
    :May 07, 2025

Cisco CCNP Enterprise 350-401 Questions & Answers

  • Question 1021:

    Refer to the exhibit. Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

    A. {[{'First Name': 'Johnny', 'Last Name': 'Table', 'Hobbies': ['Running', 'Video games']}, {'First Name': 'Billy', 'Last Name': 'Smith', 'Hobbies': ['Napping', 'Reading']}]}

    B. {'Person': [{'First Name': 'Johnny', 'Last Name': 'Table', 'Hobbies': 'Running', 'Video games'}, {'First Name': 'Billy', 'Last Name': 'Smith', 'Hobbies': 'Napping', 'Reading'}]}

    C. {[{'First Name': 'Johnny', 'Last Name': 'Table', 'Hobbies': 'Running', 'Hobbies': 'Video games'}, {'First Name': 'Billy', 'Last Name': 'Smith', 'Hobbies': 'Napping', 'Reading'}]}

    D. {'Person': [{'First Name': 'Johnny', 'Last Name': 'Table', 'Hobbies': ['Running', 'Video games']}, {'First Name': 'Billy', 'Last Name': 'Smith', 'Hobbies': ['Napping', 'Reading']}]}

  • Question 1022:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    Which command when applied to the Atlanta router reduces type 3 LSA flooding into the backbone area and summarizes the inter-area routes on the Dallas router?

    A. Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

    B. Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

    C. Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

    D. Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

  • Question 1023:

    Refer to the exhibit. CR2 and CR3 ate configured with OSPF. Which configuration, when applied to CR1. allows CR1 to exchange OSPF Information with CR2 and CR3 but not with other network devices or on new Interfaces that are added to CR1?

    A. router ospf 1 network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 passive-interface GigabitEthernet0/2

    B. router ospf 1 network 10.165.231.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 network 172.27.206.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 network 172.24.206.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

    C. interface Gi0/2 ip ospf 1 area 0 router ospf 1 passive-interface GigabitEthernet0/2

    D. router ospf 1 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 network 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 area 0 passive-interface GigabitEthernet0/2

  • Question 1024:

    What is a characteristic of Wi-Fi channels?

    A. The 2.4-GHz band has 24 non-overlapping channels.

    B. Devices that connect to the same Wi-Fi channel reside in the same collision domain.

    C. Wi-Fi channels are spaced 30 MHz apart.

    D. The 5-GHz band offers 11 different channels for Wi-Fi clients.

  • Question 1025:

    Which two parameters are examples of a QoS traffic descriptor? (Choose two)

    A. MPLS EXP bits

    B. bandwidth

    C. DSCP

    D. ToS

    E. packet size

  • Question 1026:

    Which antenna type should be used for a site-to-site wireless connection?

    A. Omnidirectional

    B. dipole

    C. patch

    D. Yagi

  • Question 1027:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    A network engineer is enabling logging to a local buffer, to the terminal and to a syslog server for all debugging level logs filtered by facility code 7.

    Which command is needed to complete this configuration snippet?

    A. logging buffered debugging

    B. logging discriminator Disc1 severity includes 7

    C. logging buffered discriminator Dlsd debugging

    D. logging discriminator Disc1 severity includes 7 facility includes fac7

  • Question 1028:

    Which two items are found in YANG data models? (Choose two.)

    A. HTTP return codes

    B. rpc statements

    C. JSON schema

    D. container statements

    E. XML schema

  • Question 1029:

    What NTP Stratum level is a server that is connected directly to an authoritative time source?

    A. Stratum 0

    B. Stratum 1

    C. Stratum 14

    D. Stratum 15

  • Question 1030:

    What Is the process for moving a virtual machine from one host machine to another with no downtime?

    A. high availability

    B. disaster recovery

    C. live migration

    D. multisite replication

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