CompTIA 220-1101 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA 220-1101 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 961:

  A technician set up a new access point and has noticed significant latency on the selected channel. Which of the following tools can assist with locating the BEST channel to use?

  A. Wi-Fi analyzer
  B. Netstat
  C. Net use
  D. Traceroute
  E. Network tap
  A. Wi-Fi analyzer

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  Explanation

  A Wi-Fi analyzer is a tool that can be used to scan the local area for available wireless networks and can provide information such as signal strength, interference, and available channels. It can also be used to locate the best channel to use for a given access point, which can help to reduce latency and improve performance.

• Question 962:

  While implementing a non-carrier-grade wireless backhaul, a technician notices the current channel selection is extremely polluted with various RF signals. Upon performing a spectral analysis, the technician discovers a channel containing almost no RF pollution. Unfortunately, the technician is unable to select that channel. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?

  A. The channel is reserved for licensed band use.
  B. The channel selection is defective; contact the manufacturer.
  C. The channel must be unlocked by the vendor.
  D. The device requires a firmware update to unlock the channel.
  A. The channel is reserved for licensed band use.

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  Explanation

  The 2 band is subdivided into up to 14 channels, spaced at 5 MHz intervals from 2412 MHz up to 2484 MHz. Wi-Fi requires bandwidth of approximately 20 MHz, not 5 MHz. Consequently, a site designer needs to choose the channels that do not overlap. On a WLAN where only the first 11 channels are available, channels 1, 6, and 11 can be selected as non-overlapping. Note: In the Americas, regulations permit the use of channels 1-11 only, while in Europe, channels 1-13 are permitted. In Japan, all 14 channels are permitted.

• Question 963:

  A user is testing a new operating system that is contained on a USB drive. The user wants the new OS to load automatically when the computer is powered on.

  Which of the following should the user configure?

  A. BIOS password
  B. Trusted Platform Module
  C. USB permissions
  D. Boot options
  D. Boot options

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  Explanation

  To make sure that the new operating system on the USB drive loads automatically, the user must configure the boot options in the BIOS/UEFI. Boot options determine the sequence of devices the computer will attempt to boot from when powered on. Setting the USB drive as the first boot option ensures that the system will load from the USB before trying other devices. Boot options: The user should configure the boot sequence to prioritize the USB drive, so the system boots from it automatically.

  Why the other options are incorrect:

  BIOS password: A BIOS password is used to restrict access to the BIOS settings, not to control boot order.

  Trusted Platform Module (TPM): TPM is a security feature used for cryptographic operations and securing hardware, not for controlling boot options.

  C. USB permissions: This refers to access permissions for USB devices but does not affect booting from a USB drive.

  This concept is part of the Hardware domain in the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam, specifically regarding BIOS configuration.

• Question 964:

  A web developer needs to test the compatibility of web functions across multiple different browsers and versions of those browsers. The web developer only has one machine and cannot install multiple browser versions. Which of the following should the developer do to BEST resolve the issue?

  A. Purchase more machines.
  B. Deploy application virtualization.
  C. Test using a virtual desktop.
  D. Set up a multiboot configuration.
  C. Test using a virtual desktop.

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  Explanation

• Question 965:

  Which of the following is the best example of when to use virtualization?

  A. To manage shared folders by user accounts
  B. To deploy software updates to user machines
  C. To enhance security by centralizing all user desktops
  D. To prevent users from circumventing password policies
  C. To enhance security by centralizing all user desktops

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  Explanation

  One of the benefits of virtualization is that it allows you to create and manage multiple virtual machines (VMs) on a single physical computer. This can be used to enhance security by centralizing all user desktops on a server, rather than storing them on individual user machines. This way, the user desktops can be isolated from each other and from the host machine, preventing malware infections, data breaches, and unauthorized access. Additionally, the user desktops can be easily backed up, restored, updated, and monitored by the administrator, reducing the risk of data loss and downtime. This type of virtualization is called desktop virtualization, and it separates the desktop environment from the physical hardware the user interacts with1. The user can access their virtual desktop from any device, such as a laptop, tablet, or smartphone, using a remote display protocol. The user experience is similar to using a local desktop, but with improved security and manageability.

• Question 966:

  Recently, an organization received a number of spam emails that passed through the spam gateway. The emails contained generally the same information, but the sending domains were different. Which of the following solutions would BEST help mitigate the issue?

  A. Updating the keyword filtering
  B. Editing the sender policy framework
  C. Contacting the gateway vendor
  D. Verifying DMARC is enabled
  A. Updating the keyword filtering

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  Explanation

• Question 967:

  A customer contacts the help disk stating a laptop does not remain charged for more than 30 minutes and will not charge more than 15%. Which of the following components are the MOST likely causes the issue? (Select three.)

  A. LCD power inverter
  B. AC adapter
  C. Battery
  D. Processor
  E. VGA card
  F. Motherboard
  G. Backlit keyboard
  H. Wireless antenna
  A. LCD power inverter
  C. Battery
  F. Motherboard

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  Explanation

• Question 968:

  A server administrator set up a VM to be used in a lab setting. A technician is setting up thin-client computers to access this VM. Which of the following tasks are required to complete the project? (Choose three.)

  A. Connect the device to a printer.
  B. Install the operating system.
  C. Install a USB keyboard and mouse.
  D. Connect the device to the network.
  E. Install the latest system updates.
  F. Install the latest device drivers.
  G. Connect the device to a monitor.
  H. Install the necessary applications.
  D. Connect the device to the network.
  E. Install the latest system updates.
  H. Install the necessary applications.

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  Explanation

• Question 969:

  After replacing a hot-swappable hard drive in a RAID 5 array, a technician notices decreased disk performance for approximately 12 hours.

  Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issue?

  A. Losing a drive caused data loss.
  B. Data is being written to the new drive.
  C. The array is repairing corrupt data sectors.
  D. Another drive has gone offline.
  C. The array is repairing corrupt data sectors.

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  Explanation

  After replacing a hot-swappable hard drive in a RAID 5 array, the array must rebuild the data onto the new drive. This process involves reading data from the remaining drives and writing it to the new drive to restore full redundancy. The performance decrease is due to the intensive read and write operations necessary to rebuild the RAID array, which can take several hours depending on the size of the drives and the amount of data.

• Question 970:

  A large office is eliminating all personal printers for VIP staff members and replacing these devices with one enterprise MFR Human resources staff members are concerned about printing confidential documents on the new device. Which of the following best addresses this concern?

  A. Central printer server
  B. Secure print
  C. Audit logs
  D. Wi-Fi direct printing
  B. Secure print

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  Explanation

  Secure print, also known as "private print" or "held print," allows users to send print jobs to the printer but prevents the document from printing immediately. The user must then authenticate at the printer before the document is released and printed, ensuring that sensitive documents are not left unattended in the output tray. This feature enhances document security and privacy, making it the most appropriate solution for printing confidential documents in a shared office environment