CompTIA 220-1101 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA 220-1101 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 471:

  Users report that all copies produced on a copter have a solid black line, but printing is unaffected. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

  A. Failing imaging drum
  B. A scratch on the scanning bed
  C. Bad output tray
  D. Damaged (user
  B. A scratch on the scanning bed

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  Explanation

  A scratch on the scanning bed of a copier can cause a solid black line to appear on all copies, as the scanner cannot read the original document properly through the scratch. The scratch can also reflect light and create noise in the scanned

  image. The printing function is unaffected by the scratch, as it does not use the scanning bed. The technician should inspect and clean the scanning bed, and replace it if necessary.

  https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-1-content-guide (page 16)

• Question 472:

  A user recently connected multiple monitors to a dock and would like to use the monitors as an extended laptop display. Which of the following connection methods would be best to use to connect the dock to the laptop?

  A. NFC
  B. Lightning
  C. Bluetooth
  D. USB-C
  D. USB-C

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  Explanation

• Question 473:

  Which of the forming connector types would best suit a company that experiences a large volume of internet traffic?

  A. USB 3.1
  B. Quad-shielded RG11 coax
  C. SATA3.0
  D. Unshielded plenum RJ45
  B. Quad-shielded RG11 coax

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  Explanation

  RG11 coaxial cable with quad shielding is designed to handle large volumes of internet traffic, providing excellent resistance to interference and high bandwidth capacity.

  Why Not A (USB 3.1): USB 3.1 is used for connecting peripherals, not for high- volume internet traffic.

  Why Not C (SATA3.0): SATA is used for internal data storage connections, not for network traffic.

  Why Not D (Unshielded plenum RJ45): While RJ45 cables are commonly used, unshielded cables are prone to interference and are not ideal for high-volume traffic.

  Core 1 (220-1101), Section 3.1, cable types and their characteristics.

• Question 474:

  A customer reports that, after a technician replaced a laptop screen, the laptop is only able to connect to a Wi-Fi network it is positioned very close to a wireless access point

  Which of the following should the technician verify FIRST?

  A. The internal antennas are connected.
  B. The device has the latest OS updates.
  C. The wireless device drivers are the latest version.
  D. Airplane mode is disabled.
  E. The battery is charging.
  A. The internal antennas are connected.

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  Explanation

  The internal antennas are the components that allow the laptop to receive and transmit wireless signals. If the internal antennas are not connected properly, the laptop may have a weak or no Wi-Fi signal. The technician should verify that the internal antennas are connected to the wireless card and routed correctly inside the laptop case. The internal antennas may have been disconnected or damaged during the screen replacement. The device having the latest OS updates, the wireless device drivers being the latest version, airplane mode being disabled, and the battery being charging are not related to the issue, as they do not affect the physical connection of the internal antennas.

  References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-laptop-antenna

• Question 475:

  A technician wants to deploy a .msi package to a corporate network. The technician needs to verify the application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the end users' computers. Which of the following would the technician consider the most appropriate for this situation?

  A. Virtual network
  B. Application virtualization
  C. Cross-platform virtualization
  D. Virtual sandbox
  E. Virtual desktop
  B. Application virtualization

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  Explanation

  Application virtualization is a technique that allows an application to run on a computer without being installed or affecting other applications on the system. Application virtualization creates a virtual environment for the application that isolates it from the underlying operating system and hardware. This way, the technician can verify the application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the end users' computers.

• Question 476:

  A company wants to save money by leveraging the cloud while still being able to customize the infrastructure. Which of the following cloud models would best address the company's needs?

  A. Private
  B. Public
  C. Hybrid
  D. Community
  C. Hybrid

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  Explanation

  A hybrid cloud model would best address the company's needs of saving money by leveraging the cloud while still being able to customize the infrastructure. A hybrid cloud model is a combination of public and private cloud services, connected by a secure network. A public cloud service is a cloud service that is offered by a third-party provider over the Internet, and is shared by multiple customers. A private cloud service is a cloud service that is dedicated to a single customer, and is hosted either on-premises or by a third-party provider. A hybrid cloud model allows the company to use the public cloud for cost-effective and scalable services, such as storage, backup, or analytics, and use the private cloud for more sensitive or customized services, such as security, compliance, or performance. A hybrid cloud model also enables the company to move workloads between the public and private cloud as needed, depending on the demand, availability, or cost. A hybrid cloud model can provide the company with the best of both worlds: the flexibility and efficiency of the cloud, and the control and customization of the infrastructure.

  References: What is Hybrid Cloud? | IBM1 Hybrid Cloud Computing | Microsoft Azure2 Cloud Deployment Models: Explaining and Comparing the 5 Main Models ...3

• Question 477:

  Which of the following is an isolated virtual machine?

  A. Sandbox
  B. Hypervisor
  C. Container
  D. VDI
  A. Sandbox

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  Explanation

  A sandbox is an isolated environment typically used for testing software or running applications without affecting the host system. The isolated nature of a sandbox allows users to run applications or even entire operating systems in a contained virtual machine, which prevents potential harm to the primary system.

  Sandbox: A sandbox is an isolated virtual machine environment where users can test new applications or software safely.

  Why the other options are incorrect:

  Hypervisor: A hypervisor is software that manages multiple virtual machines (VMs), but it is not an isolated VM itself.

  Container: Containers isolate applications but are not fully isolated virtual machines. Containers share the host OS kernel, while sandboxes provide a full virtualized environment. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure): VDI provides a desktop environment hosted on a centralized server. It is not the same as an isolated virtual machine for testing purposes.

  This is covered under the Virtualization domain in the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam.

• Question 478:

  A technician is working on a critical warehouse machine that will not turn on. The technician has determined the power supply for the machine failed. The warehouse manager is looking for a solution that will prevent downtime in the future. Which of the following devices should the technician install to meet this requirement?

  A. Grounded power supply
  B. Modular power supply
  C. 220V power supply
  D. Redundant power supply
  D. Redundant power supply

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  Explanation

  A redundant power supply is a device that provides two or more power supplies connected in parallel so that when one fails, the other one will take over to ensure continuous power. This is ideal for critical warehouse machines that require a reliable power source and are at risk of downtime in the event of a power failure. Installing a redundant power supply will help to reduce the chances of an unexpected power outage and keep the machine running.

• Question 479:

  A technician is troubleshooting a thermal receipt printer that will not print. Which of the following should the technician do first to restore functionality?

  A. Update the printer driver on the computer.
  B. Replace the thermal printhead.
  C. Make sure the thermal head is heating up.
  D. Flip the paper roll orientation.
  D. Flip the paper roll orientation.

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  Explanation

  A thermal receipt printer uses heat to print on thermal paper, which has a special coating that reacts to heat and produces black marks. If the paper roll is inserted in the wrong orientation, the printer will not be able to print anything on the paper. Therefore, the first thing the technician should do is to check if the paper roll is loaded correctly, with the paper feeding under, not over. This is a common and easy mistake to fix, and it does not require any software or hardware changes.

• Question 480:

  A technician is troubleshooting a wireless network issue. The users are all connected to the network, but the throughput is slow, and connections often drop. Which of the following should the technician check first?

  A. Encryption cipher
  B. Channel interference
  C. Number of connected devices
  D. Antenna type
  B. Channel interference

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  Explanation

  The first thing that the technician should check when troubleshooting a wireless network issue with slow throughput and frequent connection drops is the channel interference. Channel interference is a common cause of poor Wi-Fi performance, as it occurs when multiple wireless networks or devices use the same or overlapping frequency bands, resulting in signal degradation, congestion, or collision. Channel interference can affect both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz networks, but it is more likely to happen on the 2.4 GHz band, as it has fewer and narrower channels than the 5 GHz band. To check for channel interference, the technician can use a Wi-Fi analyzer tool, such as the ones found in the web search results123, to scan the wireless environment and identify the best channel to use for the network. A Wi-Fi analyzer tool can display various information, such as the network name (SSID), signal strength (RSSI), channel number, frequency, bandwidth, and security type. The technician can look for the following indicators of channel interference: High network density: If there are many wireless networks or devices in the vicinity, they may compete for the same or adjacent channels, causing interference and congestion. The technician can look for the number of networks or devices on each channel and avoid the crowded ones. Channel overlap: If there are wireless networks or devices that use the same or partially overlapping channels, they may interfere with each other and degrade the signal quality. The technician can look for the channel width and frequency of each network and avoid the overlapping ones. For example, on the 2.4 GHz band, the technician should use only the non-overlapping channels 1, 6, and 11, and avoid the channels in between. Signal interference: If there are other sources of electromagnetic radiation or noise that operate on the same or similar frequency bands as the wireless network, they may interfere with the wireless signals and cause distortion or loss. The technician can look for the signal strength and quality of each network and avoid the ones that are weak or noisy. For example, some common sources of signal interference are microwave ovens, cordless phones, Bluetooth devices, or baby monitors. To fix the channel interference issue, the technician can try the following solutions: Change the channel of the wireless network: The technician can use the Wi-Fi analyzer tool to find the least congested and most optimal channel for the network, and then change the channel settings on the router or the access point. The technician should also consider using the 5 GHz band instead of the 2.4 GHz band, as it offers more and wider channels and less interference. Relocate the router or the access point: The technician can move the router or the access point to a different location, away from potential sources of interference or obstacles that may block or weaken the wireless signals, such as walls, furniture, or metal objects. The technician should also place the router or the access point in a central and elevated position, to provide better coverage and signal quality for the network. Upgrade the router or the access point: The technician can replace the router or the access point with a newer and more advanced model, that supports the latest Wi-Fi standards, such as Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) or Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac). These standards offer higher data rates, lower latency, and better performance in dense and noisy environments, compared to the older standards, such as Wi-Fi 4 (802.11n) or Wi-Fi 3 (802.11g).

  References: How to Fix Wi-Fi Connection Drops - Lifewire4 How to Fix When Wi-Fi Keeps Disconnecting on Windows 115 How to Fix Wi-Fi Connection Drops - Lifewire6 How to Fix Wi-Fi Connection Drops - Lifewire7 How to Fix Wi-Fi Connection Drops - Lifewire8