Oracle 1Z0-1059-20 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Oracle 1Z0-1059-20 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 61:

  How many tabs does the Customer Contract Source Data Import Template have?

  A. four tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_SUB_UNES, and VRM_PERF_OBLIG tables respectively
  B. three tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES, and VRM_SOURCE_DOC_SUB_LINES tables respectively
  C. two tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS and VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES tables respectively
  D. one tab that stores data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS table
  B. three tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES, and VRM_SOURCE_DOC_SUB_LINES tables respectively

• Question 62:

  Which is NOT a required piece of information when importing contract header Information from a source file?

  A. Date of Source Document
  B. Source Document Type code
  C. Record Type
  D. Source System
  E. Currency code of source document
  F. Source Document Unique Identifier Number 1
  F. Source Document Unique Identifier Number 1

• Question 63:

  What should E-Business Suite General Ledger and Oracle Cloud General Ledger do as part of the transition to the new standard strategy under ASC 606 and IFRS 15?

  A. Create a reporting ledger.
  B. Create a new primary ledger.
  C. Create a secondary ledger.
  D. Using their existing primary ledger.
  D. Using their existing primary ledger.

• Question 64:

  Which method is used to allocate total transaction price across performance obligations in Revenue Management?

  A. Inverted Allocation Method
  B. Residual Allocation Method
  C. Relative Allocation Method
  D. Two Step Allocation Method
  E. Alternative Allocation Method
  D. Two Step Allocation Method

• Question 65:

  The predefined Revenue Contract Account Activities Report provides data extracted from which two sources?

  A. Oracle Revenue Management Cloud
  B. Oracle Receivables
  C. Oracle General Ledger
  D. Oracle Subledger Accounting
  A. Oracle Revenue Management Cloud
  D. Oracle Subledger Accounting

• Question 66:

  Given the Identify Customer Contracts Job set performs many different processes, which action Is NOT performed by this job set?

  A. allocates the SSP to various satisfaction events
  B. creates the accounting for the stages in the process
  C. allocates the SSP to various performance obligations
  D. recognizes revenue if any satisfaction events exist
  E. creates customer contracts and performance obligations
  B. creates the accounting for the stages in the process

• Question 67:

  Your customer ships machines, and can recognize revenue for each machine after the machine has been delivered to a customer without waiting for complete satisfaction of an entire performance obligation. How would you configure Satisfaction Method (SM) and Satisfaction Measurement Model (SMM) in Revenue Management to recognize revenue for these performance obligations at a point in time?

  A. by setting SM to "Allow Partial" and SMM to "Quantity"
  B. by setting SM to "Requires Complete" and SMM to "Period"
  C. by setting SM to "Requires Complete" and SMM to "Quantity"
  D. by setting SM to "Requires Complete" and SMM to "Percent"
  E. by setting SM to "Allow Partial" and SMM to "Period"
  B. by setting SM to "Requires Complete" and SMM to "Period"

• Question 68:

  Which three tasks can be performed In the Revenue Management Work Area?

  A. Edit Contract Identification Rules.
  B. Review Observed Standalone Selling Prices.
  C. Manage contracts in "Pending Review" status.
  D. Manage contracts in "Pending Allocation" status.
  E. Review Performance Satisfaction Plans.
  F. Review Revenue Price Profiles.
  B. Review Observed Standalone Selling Prices.
  C. Manage contracts in "Pending Review" status.
  D. Manage contracts in "Pending Allocation" status.

• Question 69:

  When deciding how to set up the system to recognize revenue, it is important to understand the extent of revenue deferral and the subsequent timing of revenue recognition. Which two statements are true when you

  consider that recognition depends on the nature of the contingency? (Choose two)

  A. Payment-based contingencies do not always require payment before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized
  B. Time-based contingencies must not expire before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized
  C. Time-based contingencies can expire, but the contingency will have to be removed manually before the revenue is recognized if payment is not due yet
  D. Pre-billing customer acceptance clauses require the recording of customer acceptance in the feeder system, or its expiration, before importing into Receivables for invoicing. Customer acceptance or its expiration must occur before the contingency can be removed and the order can be imported into Receivables for invoicing.
  E. Post-billing customer acceptance clauses must expire (implicit acceptance), or be manually accepted (explicit acceptance), before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized.
  D. Pre-billing customer acceptance clauses require the recording of customer acceptance in the feeder system, or its expiration, before importing into Receivables for invoicing. Customer acceptance or its expiration must occur before the contingency can be removed and the order can be imported into Receivables for invoicing.
  E. Post-billing customer acceptance clauses must expire (implicit acceptance), or be manually accepted (explicit acceptance), before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized.

• Question 70:

  Which three statements about Effective Periods are true?

  A. If effective periods are not defined, Revenue Management uses the General Ledger calendar.
  B. Effective Periods are used for standalone selling prices and for creating journal entries.
  C. Gaps between periods are not allowed
  D. You cannot have overlapping periods.
  E. Effective Periods only define the rage where standalone selling prices of an item should be effective.
  C. Gaps between periods are not allowed
  D. You cannot have overlapping periods.
  E. Effective Periods only define the rage where standalone selling prices of an item should be effective.